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A client is scheduled for an external version.
The nurse would expect to prepare which of the following medications to be administered prior to the procedure?

A.

Oxytocin.

B.

Methylergonovine.

C.

Betamethasone.

D.

Terbutaline.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, not typically used before an external version, which is a procedure to turn a breech baby to a head-down position.

 

Choice B rationale

Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by inducing strong uterine contractions, not indicated before an external version.

 

Choice C rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not required for an external version.

 

Choice D rationale

Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to relax the uterus, making it easier to manipulate the fetus during the external version procedure.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.

Choice B rationale

GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.

Choice C rationale

GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.

Choice D rationale

GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the

likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.

Choice B rationale

A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications

associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.

Choice C rationale

A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to

complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.

Choice D rationale

A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative

risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .

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