A client is scheduled for an external version.
The nurse would expect to prepare which of the following medications to be administered prior to the procedure?
Oxytocin.
Methylergonovine.
Betamethasone.
Terbutaline.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, not typically used before an external version, which is a procedure to turn a breech baby to a head-down position.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by inducing strong uterine contractions, not indicated before an external version.
Choice C rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not required for an external version.
Choice D rationale
Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to relax the uterus, making it easier to manipulate the fetus during the external version procedure.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that
the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves
antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect
the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric
management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .