A client is receiving orlistat as part of a weight management program. Which ongoing assessment should be included in the plan of care to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Depression screening.
Daily calorie count.
Body mass index (BMI).
Serum protein levels.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
Depression screening is important for overall health and well-being, especially in weight management programs where mental health can significantly impact outcomes. However, it is not the primary measure for determining the effectiveness of orlistat. Orlistat works by inhibiting the absorption of fats from the diet, leading to weight loss. Therefore, while mental health monitoring is crucial, it does not directly measure the medication’s effectiveness.
Choice B Reason:
Daily calorie count is a useful tool in weight management programs to ensure that clients are adhering to a calorie-restricted diet. However, it is not a direct measure of the effectiveness of orlistat. While calorie counting can help manage weight, the primary goal of orlistat is to reduce fat absorption, which is better reflected in changes in body weight and BMI.
Choice C Reason:
Body mass index (BMI) is a key indicator of weight management and is directly related to the effectiveness of orlistat. BMI is calculated based on height and weight, providing a clear measure of changes in body weight over time. Monitoring BMI helps determine if the client is losing weight as expected, making it the most appropriate assessment for evaluating the effectiveness of orlistat.
Choice D Reason:
Serum protein levels are important for assessing nutritional status and overall health. However, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of orlistat in a weight management program. Orlistat’s primary function is to reduce fat absorption, and its effectiveness is better assessed through changes in body weight and BMI rather than serum protein levels.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Asking if the client’s morning voids are dark-colored can help identify potential side effects of carbidopa-levodopa, such as darkened urine, which is a known but harmless side effect. However, this does not directly address the client’s concern about the medication’s effectiveness.
Choice B reason:
Evaluating the client for signs of dyskinesia is important because dyskinesia can be a side effect of long-term carbidopa-levodopa use. However, this step is more relevant after understanding the client’s specific concerns about the medication’s effectiveness.
Choice C reason:
Determining if the client is taking the medication before meals is crucial because food can affect the absorption of carbidopa-levodopa. Taking the medication on an empty stomach can enhance its effectiveness. However, this step should follow a more detailed exploration of the client’s concerns.
Choice D reason:
Exploring what the client means by the drug “is not working” is the most important first step. This allows the nurse to understand the client’s specific issues, whether they are related to symptom management, side effects, or other concerns. This information is essential for tailoring subsequent interventions and providing appropriate education and support.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F","G","H"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Shaking is lessened: This indicates that the client’s nervous system is stabilizing. Shaking or tremors can be a sign of an adverse drug reaction, particularly if the reaction involves the central nervous system. The lessening of shaking suggests that the adverse effects are subsiding and the client’s condition is improving.
Choice B reason:
Client is no longer flushed: Flushing is a common symptom of an adverse drug reaction, particularly with medications like vancomycin, which can cause “red man syndrome.” The absence of flushing indicates that the reaction is resolving and the client’s skin is returning to its normal state.
Choice C reason:
No longer itching: Itching is a common symptom of an allergic reaction. The cessation of itching suggests that the histamine response is diminishing, indicating that the adverse reaction is being controlled and the client is recovering.
Choice D reason:
Anxiety has decreased: Anxiety can be a symptom of an adverse drug reaction, particularly if the reaction involves the cardiovascular or nervous system. The decrease in anxiety indicates that the client’s overall condition is stabilizing and that the adverse effects are subsiding.
Choice E reason:
Skin warm and dry: Normal skin temperature and moisture levels indicate that the client’s autonomic nervous system is functioning properly. This is a positive sign that the adverse drug reaction is resolving and the client’s body is returning to its normal state.
Choice F reason:
Heart rate 62 beats/minute, blood pressure 130/72 mm Hg: These vital signs are within normal ranges for a resting adult. A normal heart rate (60-100 beats per minute) and blood pressure (less than 120/80 mm Hg) indicate that the client’s cardiovascular system is stabilizing and that the adverse drug reaction is resolving.
Choice G reason:
No chest pain noted: The absence of chest pain is a positive sign, as chest pain can be a symptom of a severe adverse drug reaction, particularly if it involves the cardiovascular system. The lack of chest pain indicates that the client’s condition is improving.
Choice H reason:
Respirations are even and unlabored: Normal respiratory function indicates that the client’s respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the drug reaction. Even and unlabored respirations suggest that the client is recovering and that the adverse effects are subsiding.
Choice I reason:
Drowsy: While drowsiness can be a side effect of medications like diphenhydramine, it can also indicate that the client’s body is relaxing and recovering from the adverse drug reaction. Drowsiness in this context is a sign that the client is stabilizing and that the adverse effects are being managed.
