A client is receiving orlistat as part of a weight management program. Which ongoing assessment should be included in the plan of care to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Depression screening.
Daily calorie count.
Body mass index (BMI).
Serum protein levels.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
Depression screening is important for overall health and well-being, especially in weight management programs where mental health can significantly impact outcomes. However, it is not the primary measure for determining the effectiveness of orlistat. Orlistat works by inhibiting the absorption of fats from the diet, leading to weight loss. Therefore, while mental health monitoring is crucial, it does not directly measure the medication’s effectiveness.
Choice B Reason:
Daily calorie count is a useful tool in weight management programs to ensure that clients are adhering to a calorie-restricted diet. However, it is not a direct measure of the effectiveness of orlistat. While calorie counting can help manage weight, the primary goal of orlistat is to reduce fat absorption, which is better reflected in changes in body weight and BMI.
Choice C Reason:
Body mass index (BMI) is a key indicator of weight management and is directly related to the effectiveness of orlistat. BMI is calculated based on height and weight, providing a clear measure of changes in body weight over time. Monitoring BMI helps determine if the client is losing weight as expected, making it the most appropriate assessment for evaluating the effectiveness of orlistat.
Choice D Reason:
Serum protein levels are important for assessing nutritional status and overall health. However, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of orlistat in a weight management program. Orlistat’s primary function is to reduce fat absorption, and its effectiveness is better assessed through changes in body weight and BMI rather than serum protein levels.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A: Peripheral Edema
Peripheral edema refers to the swelling of tissues, usually in the lower limbs, due to the accumulation of fluid. While peripheral edema can be a concern in patients with heart conditions, it is not an immediate risk in the context of the patient’s current situation. The primary concerns for this patient, given her history of symptomatic bradycardia and atrial fibrillation, are more acute and life-threatening conditions such as cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, and arrhythmias. Peripheral edema is typically a chronic condition that develops over time and is not considered an emergent risk in this scenario.
Choice B: Renal Failure
Renal failure, or kidney failure, is a condition where the kidneys lose their ability to filter waste from the blood effectively. While renal failure can be a serious complication, it is not an immediate risk for this patient. The patient’s primary issues are related to her cardiovascular system, specifically her low heart rate and history of atrial fibrillation. The immediate risks in this scenario are more likely to be related to acute cardiovascular events rather than renal complications. Additionally, there is no indication in the patient’s history or current treatment that suggests an imminent risk of renal failure.
Choice C: Necrosis
Necrosis refers to the death of body tissue due to a lack of blood flow or infection. While necrosis can occur in severe cases of prolonged ischemia or infection, it is not an immediate risk for this patient. The patient’s current condition and treatment plan do not indicate a high risk of tissue necrosis. The more pressing concerns are related to her cardiovascular health, specifically the risk of cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, and arrhythmias. These conditions are more likely to occur suddenly and require immediate medical intervention.
Choice D: Cardiac Arrest
Cardiac arrest is a sudden loss of heart function, leading to a cessation of blood flow to the body’s organs. Given the patient’s history of symptomatic bradycardia and atrial fibrillation, she is at a high risk of developing cardiac arrest. Bradycardia can lead to insufficient blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Additionally, the stress of the upcoming procedure and the discontinuation of anticoagulants can further increase this risk. Therefore, cardiac arrest is a significant immediate risk for this patient and requires close monitoring and preparedness for emergency intervention.
Choice E: Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly. The patient is receiving vancomycin, which is known to cause hypersensitivity reactions, including anaphylaxis, in some individuals. Symptoms of anaphylaxis include difficulty breathing, swelling, hives, and a drop in blood pressure. Given the patient’s current infusion of vancomycin, she is at risk for developing anaphylaxis, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent severe complications or death. The nurse must be vigilant for signs of anaphylaxis and be prepared to administer emergency treatment if necessary.
Choice F: Arrhythmias
Arrhythmias are irregular heartbeats that can range from benign to life-threatening. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation, a type of arrhythmia, and symptomatic bradycardia, both of which put her at risk for developing further arrhythmias. The stress of the upcoming procedure, changes in medication, and the underlying heart conditions all contribute to the risk of arrhythmias. These irregular heartbeats can lead to decreased cardiac output, syncope, or even progression to more severe arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, arrhythmias are an immediate risk for this patient and require continuous cardiac monitoring and readiness to intervene.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
St. John’s Wort is known to significantly decrease the blood concentrations of cyclosporine, a critical immunosuppressant used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients. This herb induces the activity of cytochrome P450 enzymes, particularly CYP3A4, which increases the metabolism of cyclosporine, leading to lower plasma levels and a higher risk of graft rejection. This interaction is highly significant and requires immediate attention to adjust the client’s medication regimen and prevent further complications.
Choice B Reason:
While it is true that St. John’s Wort is commonly used to treat depression, this information is not as significant in the context of graft rejection. The primary concern is the herb’s interaction with cyclosporine, which directly impacts the effectiveness of the immunosuppressive therapy. Understanding the reason for using the herb is important, but it does not address the immediate risk of graft rejection.
Choice C Reason:
There is no substantial evidence to suggest that ingestion of St. John’s Wort reduces sodium intake. This statement does not relate to the herb’s interaction with cyclosporine or its impact on graft rejection. Therefore, it is not a significant concern in this scenario.
Choice D Reason:
Adding St. John’s Wort does not decrease the need for corticosteroids. In fact, the herb’s interaction with cyclosporine can lead to inadequate immunosuppression, potentially increasing the need for additional medications to manage graft rejection. This statement is incorrect and does not address the critical issue of cyclosporine metabolism.
