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A client is receiving opioid therapy. The nurse should be alert to the possibility that which could occur if the client receives an opioid agonist-antagonist?

A.

Increased risk for CNS depression

B.

Respiratory depression

C.

Opioid withdrawal symptoms

D.

Hypotension

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.  

 

B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.  

 

C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.  

 

D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Administering drugs is a fundamental duty of the nurse, ensuring that medications are given safely and according to protocols.

B. Monitoring clients for drug effects is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of medications and identifying any adverse reactions or complications.

C. Prescribing drugs is not a duty performed by nurses, as this responsibility typically falls under the purview of licensed practitioners such as physicians or nurse practitioners.

D. Evaluating clients for toxic effects is part of the nurse's responsibility to ensure patient safety and to respond to any signs of medication toxicity.

E. Educating clients/caregivers about drugs is a vital role for nurses, as it helps patients understand their medications and the importance of adherence to prescribed regimens.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Take the drug on an empty stomach is correct because tetracycline should be taken without food for optimal absorption, ideally 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.

B. Take the drug along with a meal is incorrect as it can reduce the absorption of tetracycline.

C. Take the drug along with milk or fruit juice is incorrect because calcium and magnesium can bind to tetracycline, decreasing its effectiveness.

D. Take the drug immediately after meals is also incorrect as food can hinder absorption, making this timing ineffective for treatment.

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