A client is on magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia with severe features.
The nurse must notify the attending physician regarding which of the following findings?
Patellar and biceps reflexes of 3+.
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
Respiratory rate of 16 rpm.
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL. .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Reflexes of 3+ indicate hyperreflexia, common in pre-eclampsia, but not necessarily critical. Monitoring is essential but not an emergency.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range but requires monitoring for any changes. It's not a critical alert.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 16 rpm is normal and does not indicate immediate risk requiring physician notification.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly high, indicating potential toxicity. Immediate physician notification is critical to adjust magnesium sulfate administration.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that
the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves
antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect
the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric
management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .