A client is on magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia with severe features.
The nurse must notify the attending physician regarding which of the following findings?
Patellar and biceps reflexes of 3+.
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
Respiratory rate of 16 rpm.
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL. .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Reflexes of 3+ indicate hyperreflexia, common in pre-eclampsia, but not necessarily critical. Monitoring is essential but not an emergency.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range but requires monitoring for any changes. It's not a critical alert.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 16 rpm is normal and does not indicate immediate risk requiring physician notification.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly high, indicating potential toxicity. Immediate physician notification is critical to adjust magnesium sulfate administration.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While maternal lacerations are a risk during childbirth, they are not the greatest risk in cases of fetal dystocia. The focus is primarily on fetal wellbeing.
Choice B rationale
Fetal injury such as bruising can occur with dystocia, but the primary concern is the potential for severe, life-threatening complications.
Choice C rationale
Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor is the greatest risk with fetal dystocia. Prolonged labor can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, causing asphyxia and
potential brain injury.
Choice D rationale
Increased consideration for a cesarean delivery is a possible outcome of fetal dystocia, but it is a management decision rather than a direct risk to the baby’s immediate health.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .