A client expresses concern about teratogen exposure on fetal development.Which factor does the nurse emphasize as a priority related to the effects of teratogen exposure?
The mother’s size.
The timing and duration of exposure.
The type of teratogen.
The father’s health.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
The mother’s size does not significantly impact the effects of teratogen exposure on fetal development. Teratogens are substances that cause congenital abnormalities in a developing fetus, and their impact is more related to the timing, duration, and type of exposure rather than the mother’s physical characteristics.
Choice B rationale
The timing and duration of exposure are critical factors in determining the effects of teratogen exposure. Teratogens can cause the most harm during specific periods of fetal development, particularly during the first trimester when organogenesis occurs. The duration of exposure also influences the severity of the effects, with prolonged exposure leading to more significant developmental issues.
Choice C rationale
The type of teratogen is also important, as different teratogens can cause different types of congenital abnormalities. For example, alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, while certain medications can cause neural tube defects. However, the timing and duration of exposure are generally considered more critical factors.
Choice D rationale
The father’s health does not directly impact the effects of teratogen exposure on fetal development. Teratogens affect the fetus through the mother’s exposure to harmful substances during pregnancy.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fetal movements, known as quickening, are typically felt by the mother between 16 and 25 weeks of pregnancy, not specifically at week 245.
Choice B rationale
The baby’s heartbeat can be detected by 10-12 weeks of pregnancy using a Doppler ultrasound device. This is an important milestone in fetal development and prenatal care
.
Choice C rationale
Lanugo, the fine hair covering the fetus, usually appears around 20 weeks of pregnancy and starts to disappear closer to the end of the third trimester, not specifically by week 355.
Choice D rationale
The sex of the baby is determined at conception, but it can be detected via ultrasound around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not by week 85.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The umbilical cord does not typically contain one artery and one vein. This configuration would not provide the necessary blood flow to support fetal development. The umbilical cord must have two arteries to carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus to the placenta, and one vein to carry oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus.
Choice B rationale
Two veins and one artery is also incorrect. The umbilical cord must have two arteries to ensure that deoxygenated blood and waste products are efficiently transported from the fetus to the placenta. Having only one artery would not suffice for the required blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Two arteries and one vein is the correct configuration of the umbilical cord. The two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus to the placenta, while the single vein carries oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. This arrangement is essential for maintaining proper fetal circulation during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Two arteries and two veins is incorrect. The umbilical cord only needs one vein to carry oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. Having two veins would be redundant and unnecessary for fetal development.