A client exhibits muscular tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms. When reviewing the client's medication history, which would the nurse most likely find?
antipsychotic agent
antidiabetic agent
general anesthetic
anticholinergic agent
The Correct Answer is A
A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.
B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.
C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.
D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Sit up comfortably in the bed is incorrect; the client should be in an upright position, which can be done while sitting up comfortably, but it’s essential to emphasize a more upright posture for optimal administration.
B. Tilt the head slightly to the side is correct; this position helps facilitate the delivery of the medication into the nasal passages.
C. Insert the tip of the nose piece into one nostril is correct; proper insertion ensures effective delivery of the medication.
D. Hold the breath for a few seconds after administering the spray is correct; this allows the medication to be absorbed more effectively.
E. Blow the nose 1 minute after administering the spray is incorrect; clients should avoid blowing their nose immediately after use to allow for proper absorption of the medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. It has a peak effect of 4-6 hours is incorrect; short-acting insulin typically peaks between 2 to 3 hours after administration.
B. It should be given once daily in the evening is incorrect; short-acting insulin is usually administered before meals, not as a once-daily dose.
C. It starts to take effect within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration is correct; this timing is critical for managing blood glucose levels during meals.
D. It has a duration of action of 24 hours is incorrect; short-acting insulin usually has a duration of about 3 to 6 hours.