Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A client exhibits muscular tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms. When reviewing the client's medication history, which would the nurse most likely find?

A.

antipsychotic agent

B.

antidiabetic agent

C.

general anesthetic

D.

anticholinergic agent

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.  

 

B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.  

 

C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.  

 

D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A. Improved sleep is correct; an effective antidepressant can help normalize sleep patterns, which is a positive indicator of treatment efficacy.

B. Decreased anxiety is correct; fluoxetine is also effective in treating anxiety symptoms, so a reduction indicates the medication is working.

C. Reduced appetite is incorrect; while some individuals may experience appetite changes, a reduced appetite is not an indicator of effectiveness and could indicate a side effect.

D. Weight loss is incorrect; while weight loss can occur, it is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of fluoxetine and can also signify side effects.

E. Interest in physical activity is correct; an increase in motivation and engagement in activities is a strong indicator of improvement in depressive symptoms.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps retain potassium while promoting sodium and water excretion. This makes it advantageous for clients who may be at risk for hypokalemia with furosemide, which can lead to significant potassium loss.

B. This statement is incorrect; spironolactone causes less potassium loss compared to furosemide, making it a better option for those needing to maintain potassium levels.

C. This statement is misleading; spironolactone does promote diuresis but does not cause greater water losses than furosemide.

D. This is incorrect; while spironolactone does promote sodium excretion, it does not do so to a greater extent than furosemide, which is a more potent diuretic.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2026, All Right Reserved.