A client exhibits muscular tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms. When reviewing the client's medication history, which would the nurse most likely find?
antipsychotic agent
antidiabetic agent
general anesthetic
anticholinergic agent
The Correct Answer is A
A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.
B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.
C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.
D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Nitrates do not share a cross-sensitivity with penicillin and are safe to use in this client.
B. Tetracycline is a different class of antibiotics and does not have cross-sensitivity with penicillin.
C. Aminoglycosides also do not have cross-sensitivity with penicillin and can be safely administered.
D. Cephalosporins are structurally related to penicillin and have a risk of cross-sensitivity; thus, they should not be given to a client with a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Take the drug on an empty stomach is correct because tetracycline should be taken without food for optimal absorption, ideally 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
B. Take the drug along with a meal is incorrect as it can reduce the absorption of tetracycline.
C. Take the drug along with milk or fruit juice is incorrect because calcium and magnesium can bind to tetracycline, decreasing its effectiveness.
D. Take the drug immediately after meals is also incorrect as food can hinder absorption, making this timing ineffective for treatment.