Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A client exhibits muscular tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms. When reviewing the client's medication history, which would the nurse most likely find?

A.

antipsychotic agent

B.

antidiabetic agent

C.

general anesthetic

D.

anticholinergic agent

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.  

 

B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.  

 

C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.  

 

D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the primary laboratory test used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy, measuring the time it takes for blood to clot and ensuring therapeutic levels.

C. The International normalized ratio (INR) is also related to warfarin therapy rather than heparin.

D. Serum potassium level is not relevant for assessing heparin therapy but may be monitored for other reasons.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "I will take this medication at bedtime to help with my symptoms." is correct; famotidine is often taken at bedtime to reduce nocturnal gastric acid secretion and help manage symptoms.

B. "I can take this medication with antacids for faster relief." is incorrect; antacids can interfere with the absorption of famotidine, and patients should be advised to separate the doses by at least an hour.

C. "I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication." is correct; alcohol can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and should generally be avoided.

D. "I will monitor for signs of unusual bleeding or bruising." is correct; while famotidine is not typically associated with bleeding risks, monitoring for signs of unusual bleeding is a good practice when taking any medication, particularly in patients with risk factors.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.