A client exhibits muscular tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms. When reviewing the client's medication history, which would the nurse most likely find?
antipsychotic agent
antidiabetic agent
general anesthetic
anticholinergic agent
The Correct Answer is A
A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.
B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.
C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.
D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Sodium levels are important to monitor, but they are not the primary concern with furosemide treatment.
B. Bone marrow function is not a direct concern related to furosemide therapy.
C. Calcium levels are less critical compared to potassium when monitoring a client on furosemide.
D. Potassium levels are correct because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, putting the client at risk for hypokalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including seizures. It acts quickly to reduce anxiety and seizure activity.
B. Phenytoin is primarily used for seizure control in conditions such as epilepsy but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal seizures.
C. Ethosuximide is specifically used for absence seizures and is not effective for alcohol withdrawal.
D. Gabapentin is sometimes used for neuropathic pain but is not indicated for acute alcohol withdrawal or seizure management.