A client began taking hydrochlorothiazide 1 week ago and is reporting occasional dizziness when standing up quickly from sitting or lying. What is the nurse's best action?
Arrange for the client's potassium levels to be assessed as soon as possible
Teach the client about the blood pressure effects of the medication and relevant safety measures.
Educate the client about the need for bed rest until the body adjusts to the new medication.
Tell the client to withhold the medication until the client can be assessed by the primary health care provider.
The Correct Answer is B
A. While assessing potassium levels is important for clients on diuretics, the immediate concern is the client's dizziness, which indicates a potential issue with blood pressure.
B. Teaching the client about the potential for orthostatic hypotension caused by hydrochlorothiazide and instructing them on safety measures (e.g., standing up slowly) is crucial to prevent falls and address the dizziness.
C. Bed rest is not necessary; the client should be educated about managing dizziness instead.
D. Withholding the medication is not warranted unless directed by a healthcare provider; the focus should be on safety education.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This insulin does not peak like short-acting insulin; glargine provides a consistent release of insulin without a peak effect.
B. Long-acting insulin is not meant to be taken with meals, as it provides basal control and is typically taken once daily, not with each meal.
C. This statement is correct; glargine provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain consistent blood glucose levels throughout the day and night.
D. Long-acting insulin is usually administered once daily, so stating that it must be given three times a day is incorrect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.
B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.
C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.
D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.