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A client at 37 weeks' gestation has been advised that she is positive for group B streptococcus (GBS). Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

A.

The doctor will prescribe intravenous antibiotics for you.

B.

A visiting nurse will administer them to you in your home.

C.

You are at very high risk for an intrauterine infection.

D.

It is important for you to check your temperature every day.

E.

The bacteria are living in your vagina.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.

 

Choice B rationale

GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.

 

Choice C rationale

GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.

 

Choice D rationale

GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Contraction duration less than 40 seconds doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole focuses on excessive frequency of contractions rather than their duration.

Choice B rationale

Contraction frequency of more than 5 in 10 minutes defines tachysystole. This condition indicates too frequent uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation.

Choice C rationale

Contraction intensity less than 80 mm Hg doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole is characterized by the number of contractions, not their intensity.

Choice D rationale

Resting tone less than 18 mm Hg is not related to the definition of tachysystole. Tachysystole concerns contraction frequency, not the resting tone of the uterus between contractions. .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Reduction of fever is not a primary effect of carboprost tromethamine. This medication is primarily used to induce uterine contractions to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice B rationale

While maintaining stable blood pressure is important, it is not the specific indicator of carboprost tromethamine's effectiveness. This medication is used to control bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Increased comfort, although significant, is not the direct effect of carboprost tromethamine. The primary aim is to induce uterine contractions to manage hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale

Decreased lochia rubra indicates the reduction of postpartum bleeding, which is the primary purpose of administering carboprost tromethamine. This outcome shows the medication is effective.

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