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A client at 37 weeks' gestation has been advised that she is positive for group B streptococcus (GBS). Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

A.

The doctor will prescribe intravenous antibiotics for you.

B.

A visiting nurse will administer them to you in your home.

C.

You are at very high risk for an intrauterine infection.

D.

It is important for you to check your temperature every day.

E.

The bacteria are living in your vagina.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.

 

Choice B rationale

GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.

 

Choice C rationale

GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.

 

Choice D rationale

GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .


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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.

Choice B rationale

Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony

despite the firm uterus.

Choice C rationale

Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.

Choice D rationale

Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure of 160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia and warrants immediate intervention to prevent complications. Stopping oxytocin is part of the management of severe

preeclampsia to avoid exacerbating the condition.

Choice B rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is within the normal range during labor induction and does not warrant stopping the infusion unless there are other concerns.

Choice C rationale

A fetal heart rate of 155 bpm with early decelerations may require close monitoring but does not necessarily warrant stopping the oxytocin infusion. Early decelerations are typically a

normal physiological response.

Choice D rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is expected during active labor and is generally not a cause to stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse should continue to monitor the labor

progression closely.

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