A client at 37 weeks' gestation has been advised that she is positive for group B streptococcus (GBS). Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
The doctor will prescribe intravenous antibiotics for you.
A visiting nurse will administer them to you in your home.
You are at very high risk for an intrauterine infection.
It is important for you to check your temperature every day.
The bacteria are living in your vagina.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.
Choice B rationale
GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.
Choice C rationale
GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.
Choice D rationale
GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reduction of fever is not a primary effect of carboprost tromethamine. This medication is primarily used to induce uterine contractions to manage postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
While maintaining stable blood pressure is important, it is not the specific indicator of carboprost tromethamine's effectiveness. This medication is used to control bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Increased comfort, although significant, is not the direct effect of carboprost tromethamine. The primary aim is to induce uterine contractions to manage hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
Decreased lochia rubra indicates the reduction of postpartum bleeding, which is the primary purpose of administering carboprost tromethamine. This outcome shows the medication is effective.