A client at 37 weeks' gestation has been advised that she is positive for group B streptococcus (GBS). Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
The doctor will prescribe intravenous antibiotics for you.
A visiting nurse will administer them to you in your home.
You are at very high risk for an intrauterine infection.
It is important for you to check your temperature every day.
The bacteria are living in your vagina.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.
Choice B rationale
GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.
Choice C rationale
GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.
Choice D rationale
GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be
left alone with her baby.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the
response is usually poor.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential
harm.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .