A client at 37 weeks' gestation has been advised that she is positive for group B streptococcus (GBS). Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
The doctor will prescribe intravenous antibiotics for you.
A visiting nurse will administer them to you in your home.
You are at very high risk for an intrauterine infection.
It is important for you to check your temperature every day.
The bacteria are living in your vagina.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
While intravenous antibiotics are given during labor to prevent GBS transmission to the baby, it is not administered at home but in the hospital when labor begins.
Choice B rationale
GBS does not significantly increase the risk of intrauterine infection that requires daily temperature checks; it primarily poses a risk of neonatal infection during delivery.
Choice C rationale
GBS bacteria reside in the vagina and can be transmitted to the baby during delivery. Administering antibiotics during labor helps protect the baby from serious GBS-related illnesses.
Choice D rationale
GBS does not cause scarlet fever or the symptoms described; those are caused by different bacteria, namely Streptococcus pyogenes. .
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.
Choice B rationale
Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.
Choice C rationale
Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.
Choice D rationale
Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .