A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.
Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?
Magnesium sulfate.
Morphine sulfate.
Terbutaline.
Betamethasone.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.
Choice B rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.
Choice C rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that
the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves
antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect
the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric
management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prior amniotic fluid leakage is not a required criterion for amniotomy. The main concern is cervical readiness and fetal head position, not previous leakage.
Choice B rationale
The fetal head engaged in the maternal pelvis ensures proper pressure and position for safe amniotomy. Engagement reduces the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and injury.
Choice C rationale
Certification of the nurse for amniotomy is not a standard criterion. The procedure is performed by qualified professionals, but certification isn't a prerequisite for the procedure to be scheduled.
Choice D rationale
Ultrasound to check the umbilical cord's position isn't a standard pre-amniotomy criterion. While it can be useful, the primary concern is the fetal head engagement and cervical readiness.