A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.
Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?
Magnesium sulfate.
Morphine sulfate.
Terbutaline.
Betamethasone.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.
Choice B rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.
Choice C rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it’s true that increased discomfort is expected with twins due to additional physical strain and space constraints, this alone is not sufficient reassurance. It is vital to assess for
signs of preterm labor or other complications.
Choice B rationale
Performing a digital cervical examination is a valid approach to checking for dilation, but this action must be carefully considered based on other signs and symptoms presented by
the patient. The focus here is on ensuring the absence or presence of labor, which might require hospital assessment.
Choice C rationale
Sending the patient to the hospital to be checked for possible signs of labor ensures that professional monitoring and interventions can occur if labor is confirmed. This action
prioritizes safety, given the increased risk of complications with twin pregnancies and the advanced gestation of 37 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Assuring the patient of the absence of contractions after an examination might provide temporary relief, but it does not address the possibility of other signs of labor or complications
that may require more comprehensive hospital assessment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.