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A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.
Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?

A.

Magnesium sulfate.

B.

Morphine sulfate.

C.

Terbutaline.

D.

Betamethasone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

 

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

 

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertensive disorders, such as preeclampsia, increase the risk of placental abruption. They can cause changes in the blood vessels of the placenta, reducing blood flow and increasing the likelihood of separation.

Choice B rationale

Uterine fibroids, which are noncancerous growths in the uterus, can interfere with the proper attachment of the placenta, raising the risk of placental abruption.

Choice C rationale

Cigarette smoking contributes to placental abruption by reducing oxygen supply to the placenta, causing placental insufficiency and increasing the risk of premature separation.

Choice D rationale

Abdominal trauma, such as from a fall or car accident, can cause mechanical disruption of the placenta, leading to abruption.

Choice E rationale

Methamphetamine use can cause vasoconstriction and hypertension, which compromise placental blood flow and increase the risk of abruption.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Checking blood sugar is important in gestational diabetes but isn't immediate priority in a triage setting compared to assessing urgent conditions that could harm the fetus or mother immediately.

Choice B rationale

Assessing vaginal blood loss post-abortion is crucial, but in the presence of ruptured membranes, fetal heart rate checks take precedence to ensure the fetus's immediate well-being.

Choice C rationale

Assessing patellar reflexes in pre-eclampsia management is significant, but immediate priority in labor and delivery triage goes to ensuring fetal safety after membrane rupture.

Choice D rationale

Checking the fetal heart rate after membrane rupture is a priority because it provides immediate information about the fetus's status and any potential complications like cord prolapse or distress.

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