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A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.
Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?

A.

Magnesium sulfate.

B.

Morphine sulfate.

C.

Terbutaline.

D.

Betamethasone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

 

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

 

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.


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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The hemoglobin level of 11.6 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While placenta previa requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening.

Choice B rationale

Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires regular monitoring and management, but a single fasting blood glucose level does not indicate an immediate emergency unless it is extremely high or low.

Choice C rationale

Partial placental abruption can lead to significant complications for both the mother and fetus, including hemorrhage and fetal distress, making it the priority for immediate assessment.

Choice D rationale

An Rh-negative status and a recent cerclage placement are important for ongoing monitoring but do not present an immediate life-threatening condition that demands the first assessment.

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