A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.
Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?
Magnesium sulfate.
Morphine sulfate.
Terbutaline.
Betamethasone.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.
Choice B rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.
Choice C rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking the blood sugar of a gestational diabetic is essential but not immediately life-threatening. Blood sugar levels should be monitored regularly throughout pregnancy for
diabetics to prevent complications. However, this does not represent an urgent priority when compared to the other options, which involve more immediate risks to life and health.
Choice B rationale
Assessing vaginal blood loss in a client recovering from a spontaneous abortion is crucial to monitor for hemorrhage or infection. Heavy bleeding could signal a serious complication
needing immediate intervention, though it is not the most immediate priority over monitoring fetal heart rate during active labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring the patellar reflexes of a client with pre-eclampsia without severe features can help in detecting early signs of progressing pre-eclampsia. While important, it is generally
not as critical as ensuring immediate fetal wellbeing, especially if reflexes do not present signs of worsening.
Choice D rationale
Checking the fetal heart rate in a client whose membranes have just ruptured is paramount. Rupture of membranes could lead to immediate complications such as umbilical cord
prolapse, leading to rapid fetal distress. Therefore, verifying fetal heart rate ensures that the fetus is not in immediate danger.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its
potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely
used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding
takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase
the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and
control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .