A client asks the nurse to describe what causes a murmur. What would be the correct response by the nurse?
"Poor electric impulse conduction through the heart
"Turbulent blood flow through the heart valves"
"Enlargement of the left ventricle."
"Weak contraction of the atria."
"Long-term systemic hypertension."
The Correct Answer is B
A. Poor electrical impulse conduction may lead to arrhythmias but does not cause a murmur.
B. A heart murmur is caused by turbulent blood flow, often through narrowed or leaking valves, creating an abnormal heart sound.
C. Left ventricular enlargement can contribute to other cardiac issues but does not directly cause murmurs.
D. Weak atrial contractions may lead to decreased cardiac output but not necessarily to a murmur.
E. While hypertension can affect the heart, it is not the direct cause of a murmur.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. CVA tenderness is associated with renal issues, not directly with congestive heart failure.
B. A CVA angle of 160 degrees is abnormal; a normal angle is closer to 90 degrees, indicating potential issues.
C. A greater CVA angle can be observed in patients with kyphosis, where the spine curves excessively, affecting rib positioning.
D. A pneumothorax typically results in reduced breath sounds and tracheal deviation, not specifically linked to CVA angle changes.
E. A barrel chest results in an increased AP diameter, not typically associated with CVA angle changes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 3+ edema indicates moderate pitting (indentation depth of 5-7 mm and lasting 10-20 seconds).
B. 1+ edema is classified as slight pitting (indentation depth less than 2 mm that disappears rapidly, typically in less than 10 seconds), making this the correct documentation.
C. 2+ edema indicates moderate pitting (indentation depth of 3-4 mm that lasts up to 15 seconds).
D. +0 indicates no edema present at all.
E. 4+ edema indicates severe pitting (indentation depth of greater than 8 mm and lasting more than 20 seconds).