A client arrives to the medical-surgical unit 4 hours after a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple lumen catheter for continuous bladder irrigation with normal saline is infusing, and the nurse observes dark, pink-tinged outflow with blood clots in the tubing and collection bag. Which action should the nurse take?
Discontinue infusing solution.
Irrigate the catheter manually.
Monitor catheter drainage.
Decrease the flow rate.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Discontinuing the infusion may lead to increased clotting and potential obstruction of the catheter. Continuous bladder irrigation is essential to keep the bladder clear of clots and debris following surgery.
B. Manually irrigating the catheter can help clear any clots that may be obstructing the catheter, ensuring adequate drainage and preventing complications such as bladder distention or retention. This is the most immediate and appropriate action to take in response to the presence of clots.
C. Monitoring catheter drainage is important; however, it does not address the potential issue of clots obstructing the flow of urine, which is the priority concern in this scenario.
D. Decreasing the flow rate may not be beneficial and could lead to inadequate irrigation of the bladder, which could exacerbate clot formation and urinary retention.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Wearing braces or splints on both wrists at night helps to keep the wrists in a neutral position, preventing flexion that can worsen symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, particularly during sleep when the hands are more likely to be positioned in ways that exacerbate compression of the median nerve.
B. While notifying the healthcare provider is important if symptoms are severe, it is not the immediate teaching intervention the nurse should provide for symptom management.
C. Elevating the hands may help with swelling but is not the primary intervention for managing symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, especially pain and tingling.
D. Cold compresses may provide temporary relief but do not address the underlying issue of median nerve compression, which is better managed by using wrist braces.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Internal bleeding typically presents with signs of hypovolemia, such as decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.
B. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by fluid overload, leading to symptoms like pitting edema in the extremities and jugular venous distention, which align with the findings observed in this client.
C. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily results in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress rather than peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
D. Cardiac tamponade may present with jugular venous distention, but it usually also involves hypotension and muffled heart sounds, which are not described in this scenario.