A client arrives at the healthcare setting currently taking atorvastatin (Lipitor) daily. Which assessment finding associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor) would need immediate reporting to the healthcare provider?
bradycardia
dark-red urine
elevated HDL cholesterol
migraine headache
The Correct Answer is B
A. Bradycardia is not a common side effect of atorvastatin and would not necessarily require immediate reporting unless it is significantly low and symptomatic.
B. Dark-red urine could indicate the presence of myoglobinuria, which can occur due to rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin that necessitates immediate medical attention.
C. Elevated HDL cholesterol is generally a positive finding and does not require reporting unless it is part of a larger adverse effect context.
D. A migraine headache, while concerning, is not a known side effect specifically associated with atorvastatin and may not require immediate intervention unless severe or persistent.
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Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Rebound hypotension is more commonly associated with abrupt withdrawal of beta-blockers rather than a direct side effect, so it is not typically included as a side effect to expect while on the medication.
B. Vomiting is not a common side effect associated with propranolol; the nurse would not educate the client on this.
C. Bradycardia is a known side effect of propranolol, as it is a beta-blocker that decreases heart rate, so clients should be educated about monitoring their heart rate.
D. Tremors can be related to withdrawal from beta-agonists rather than propranolol, which may alleviate tremors in some individuals; thus, it's not a common side effect of the medication.
E. Propranolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia (e.g., tachycardia), making it important for clients with diabetes to be aware of this potential effect.
F. Bronchoconstriction can occur in clients with reactive airway diseases, as propranolol non-selectively blocks beta receptors, so clients should be educated about this risk, especially if they have asthma or other pulmonary conditions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against Bacillus anthracis, the bacterium that causes anthrax. It is often used as a first-line treatment for exposure to anthrax, especially in its inhalational form.
B. While amoxicillin/clavulanate can treat certain infections, it is not the preferred treatment for anthrax. It is less effective against anthrax compared to ciprofloxacin.
C. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections and is not indicated for anthrax treatment.
D. Metronidazole is primarily used for anaerobic bacterial and protozoal infections, making it inappropriate for treating anthrax.