A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who has postpartum hemorrhagic shock.
Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make?
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume.
Hemorrhagic shock will cause an increase in a client's serum pH.
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output.
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline can cause tachycardia. A heart rate of 132/min is significantly higher than normal and could indicate severe cardiovascular effects.
Choice B rationale
While headaches can occur with terbutaline, they are generally not life-threatening and don't require immediate intervention compared to tachycardia.
Choice C rationale
Nasal congestion is a minor side effect and not a priority compared to a significantly elevated heart rate.
Choice D rationale
Tremors are common with terbutaline use, but they are usually not as concerning as a significantly elevated heart rate
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Obtain a prescription for a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
The client's fever (38.5°C), chills, abdominal pain, malodorous lochia, and tender fundus suggest a potential postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic is necessary to treat the infection. Given the clinical scenario, the nurse should prioritize addressing the client's symptoms and signs that suggest infection and support her well-being postpartum. Here's a breakdown of the appropriate actions:
B. Initiate airborne isolation precautions.
-
Not necessary in this case. The client's symptoms and signs do not suggest an airborne infectious disease.
C. Place the client on strict bedrest.
-
This is not necessary. While rest is important, strict bedrest may not be required and could increase the risk of other complications, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. Instruct the client to stop breastfeeding.
-
Not necessary unless there is a specific contraindication. Instead, the nurse can provide support and advice on managing engorgement and breastfeeding difficulties.