A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who has postpartum hemorrhagic shock.
Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make?
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume.
Hemorrhagic shock will cause an increase in a client's serum pH.
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output.
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular spotting is common after the placement of an IUD as the body adjusts to the device. This is a normal side effect and typically resolves within a few months.
Choice B rationale
Avoiding tampons initially after IUD placement is advised to prevent displacement or infection. Once the IUD is properly positioned and the risk of infection decreases, tampons can generally be used.
Choice C rationale
Informed consent is required prior to IUD placement to ensure the client understands the procedure, potential risks, and benefits, ensuring an informed decision.
Choice D rationale
IUDs typically need to be replaced every 3 to 10 years, depending on the type. Replacing an IUD every 2 years is not accurate and does not align with standard medical
recommendations.