A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who has postpartum hemorrhagic shock.
Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make?
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume.
Hemorrhagic shock will cause an increase in a client's serum pH.
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output.
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Informing the client to expect dark-colored stools is inaccurate for methotrexate administration. Dark stools typically indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, not a side effect of methotrexate.
Choice B rationale
Wearing two pairs of gloves is necessary when handling methotrexate as it is a cytotoxic drug. This protects healthcare workers from accidental exposure to the medication, which can be harmful.
Choice C rationale
Methotrexate is typically administered intramuscularly or orally, not subcutaneously. Administering it subcutaneously is incorrect and would not be effective for treating an ectopic pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
While it is essential to counsel the client on safe intercourse practices, instructing to use a condom for only 7 days post-administration is not specific or relevant to the methotrexate therapy for ectopic pregnancy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations with fetal movement are a sign of a healthy and reactive nonstress test. This indicates that the fetus is well-oxygenated and there is no immediate distress.
Choice B rationale
Late decelerations of the FHR occur with contractions and are a concern for fetal hypoxia. This does not indicate a reactive nonstress test and instead suggests the need for further evaluation.
Choice C rationale
Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in FHR and could indicate umbilical cord compression. This does not correlate with a reactive nonstress test.
Choice D rationale
FHR pattern with minimal variability can be a sign of fetal distress or compromised oxygenation. It is not indicative of a reactive nonstress test.