A charge nurse has four new clients arriving on the unit for admission. Which of the following clients should the nurse place in airborne precautions?
A client who has tuberculosis.
A client who has pneumonia.
A client who has shigella.
A client who has strep throat.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Tuberculosis (TB) is a highly contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs and is spread through airborne particles. When a person with active TB coughs, sneezes, or talks, they release tiny droplets containing the bacteria into the air, which can be inhaled by others1. Therefore, placing a client with TB in airborne precautions is essential to prevent the spread of the infection. This involves using a negative pressure room and requiring healthcare workers to wear N95 respirators or higher-level protection.
Choice B Reason:
Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, which can fill with fluid or pus. While pneumonia can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi, it is typically spread through respiratory droplets rather than airborne particles. Therefore, droplet precautions, rather than airborne precautions, are usually sufficient for managing clients with pneumonia. This includes wearing masks and maintaining a safe distance from the infected person.
Choice C Reason:
Shigella is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the intestines and is spread through the fecal-oral route. It is not transmitted through the air, so airborne precautions are not necessary. Instead, contact precautions are recommended to prevent the spread of Shigella, which involves wearing gloves and gowns when handling the patient or their environment and practicing good hand hygiene.
Choice D Reason:
Strep throat is a bacterial infection caused by group A Streptococcus. It is spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Similar to pneumonia, droplet precautions are sufficient for managing clients with strep throat. This includes wearing masks and maintaining a safe distance from the infected person to prevent the spread of the bacteria.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Attaching the restraints using a quick-release tie is essential for ensuring the safety of the client and the healthcare staff. A quick-release tie allows for the rapid removal of the restraints in case of an emergency, such as a fire or a sudden change in the client’s condition. This method is recommended by healthcare guidelines to ensure that restraints can be removed swiftly and safely.
Choice B reason:
Contacting the provider for a PRN (as needed) prescription for restraints is a necessary step to ensure that the use of restraints is authorized and documented. Restraints should only be used when absolutely necessary and with proper authorization to prevent misuse and to protect the client’s rights. This step ensures that the decision to use restraints is made with careful consideration and in accordance with legal and ethical standards.
Choice C reason:
Securing the restraints to a side rail on the client’s bed is not recommended. This practice can pose a significant risk to the client, as it can lead to injury if the client attempts to move or if the side rail is raised or lowered. Restraints should be secured to a part of the bed frame that does not move, such as the bed frame itself, to ensure the client’s safety.
Choice D reason:
Leaving enough room to fit three fingers between the restraints and the client’s wrist is incorrect. The correct practice is to leave enough room to fit two fingers between the restraints and the client’s wrist. This ensures that the restraints are not too tight, which could cause circulation problems or skin damage, and not too loose, which could allow the client to remove them.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Cranial nerve VII, also known as the facial nerve, is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. When assessing this nerve, a nurse would expect to see symmetrical facial movements, such as a symmetrical smile. This indicates that the facial nerve is functioning properly on both sides of the face. Any asymmetry could suggest a problem with the facial nerve, such as Bell’s palsy or a stroke.
Choice B Reason:
The position of the tongue is controlled by cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, not cranial nerve VII. The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for the movements of the tongue, and a midline position indicates normal function of this nerve. Therefore, this response is not relevant to the assessment of cranial nerve VII.
Choice C Reason:
Turning the head against resistance is a test for cranial nerve XI, the accessory nerve. This nerve controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are involved in head and shoulder movements. Assessing the ability to turn the head against resistance helps evaluate the function of the accessory nerve, not the facial nerve.
Choice D Reason:
Pupillary constriction in response to light is a function of cranial nerve III, the oculomotor nerve. This nerve controls the muscles that constrict the pupil in response to light, a reflex known as the pupillary light reflex. This response is not related to the function of cranial nerve VII.
