Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A 70-year-old male receiving high-dose IV furosemide for heart failure complains of ringing in his ears and dizziness. His current labs show normal potassium and sodium levels. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

A.

Increase the infusion rate and check the patient's sodium levels again in 2 hours

B.

Administer potassium supplements and continue the infusion

C.

Reassure the patient that the symptoms are temporary and continue monitoring

D.

Stop the furosemide infusion and notify the provider

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Increasing the infusion rate may exacerbate the patient's symptoms and does not address the potential toxicity from the furosemide.  

 

B. Normal potassium levels indicate that potassium supplementation is unnecessary and does not address the dizziness and ringing in the ears, which could suggest ototoxicity from furosemide.  

 

C. While reassurance can help, the patient's symptoms indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication that should not be ignored.  

 

D. Stopping the furosemide infusion and notifying the provider is the most appropriate action due to the risk of ototoxicity and the need for further evaluation of the patient's symptoms.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. DIC is characterized by a low platelet count due to the consumption of platelets in the coagulation process, not an elevated count.

B. While heparin may be used in the management of DIC in some cases, it is not a lifelong treatment nor a cure for the condition, as DIC results from an underlying condition rather than being a standalone disease.

C. DIC involves the overactivation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of fibrin clots and subsequent consumption of clotting factors and platelets, thus making this statement accurate.

D. DIC is not a genetic disorder but rather a complication often associated with severe infections, trauma, or other conditions, and it is not primarily due to vitamin K deficiency.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Pneumocystis lung infection is an opportunistic infection that typically occurs in later stages of HIV/AIDS when the immune system is significantly weakened, not during the initial phase of infection.

B. Fungal and bacterial infections are also associated with advanced HIV/AIDS due to immunosuppression and not seen in the initial phase of infection.

C. Flu-like symptoms and night sweats are common initial symptoms of HIV infection, often occurring 2-4 weeks after exposure during the acute retroviral syndrome phase.

D. Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer associated with advanced HIV/AIDS and does not manifest during the initial symptoms of infection.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.