A 65-year-old male patient presents with sudden onset of oliguria and signs of dehydration His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm and he has poor skin turgor. Laboratory results show elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN and creatinine levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Hypovolemia leading to decreased renal perfusion
Acute tubular necrosis
Urinary tract obstruction
Chronic kidney disease
The Correct Answer is A
A. Hypovolemia leading to decreased renal perfusion. Hypovolemia from dehydration and low blood pressure reduces blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in pre-renal AKI, characterized by elevated BUN and creatinine.
B. Acute tubular necrosis. Acute tubular necrosis may cause AKI but is often due to prolonged hypoperfusion, nephrotoxic drugs, or ischemia, not the immediate presentation seen here.
C. Urinary tract obstruction. A urinary tract obstruction leads to post-renal AKI, often with symptoms like flank pain or difficulty urinating, not dehydration and low blood pressure.
D. Chronic kidney disease. Chronic kidney disease is a long-term condition and would not cause the acute symptoms or sudden onset of AKI as seen in this patient.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Warfarin. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, but it typically requires several days to achieve a therapeutic effect and needs close monitoring of INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels. While it can be used for long-term prevention of DVT, it's not the immediate choice for post-operative prophylaxis.
B. Alteplase (tPA). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent, used to break down existing clots, not prevent their formation. It is typically used in emergency situations, such as for treating ischemic stroke.
C. Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent, often used to prevent arterial clots, not DVTs. It is more commonly used in conditions like stroke and heart disease.
D. Enoxaparin. Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, is commonly used to prevent DVT after surgery by inhibiting specific clotting factors. It’s frequently prescribed for DVT prevention in orthopedic surgery patients.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Initiation of a high-sodium diet. A high-sodium diet is not indicated in pulmonary embolism management; it could worsen fluid retention and cardiovascular strain.
B. Application of a cast to the affected limb. Casting is not appropriate for pulmonary embolism, as it is not an orthopedic injury. Immobilization could increase the risk of further clot formation.
C. Administration of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulant therapy, such as heparin or warfarin, is the primary treatment for pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation and allow the body to dissolve the clot.
D. Administration of bronchodilators. Bronchodilators may alleviate respiratory symptoms but do not treat the underlying clot in pulmonary embolism. Anticoagulation remains the primary treatment.