Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A 65-year-old female presents with confusion, headache, and muscle weakness. Her sodium level is 120 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate based on her condition?

A.

Administer hypertonic saline and restrict water intake

B.

Start fluid restriction and administer a loop diuretic

C.

Administer isotonic saline and encourage oral fluid intake

D.

Increase oral sodium intake and administer an antiemetic

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Administering hypertonic saline (3% NaCl) is appropriate for treating severe hyponatremia, as it helps to raise sodium levels safely. Restricting water intake is also necessary to prevent further dilution of sodium.  

 

B. Fluid restriction with a loop diuretic may not be effective in this scenario and can worsen the hyponatremia by causing further fluid loss without addressing the sodium levels.  

 

C. Isotonic saline is not indicated for correcting severe hyponatremia, and encouraging oral fluid intake could exacerbate the condition.  

 

D. Increasing oral sodium intake is not sufficient for immediate correction of severe hyponatremia and does not address the acute nature of the client’s symptoms.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Hepatitis is a concern for individuals with HIV, but it is not specifically indicated by a low CD4-T-cell count.

B. A CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression, making the client highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis, which is common in individuals with HIV.

C. While gonorrhea is a risk for sexually active individuals, it is not specifically related to the low CD4-T-cell count.

D. Chlamydia is also a sexually transmitted infection, but similar to gonorrhea, it is not directly linked to the immunocompromised state indicated by the CD4-T-cell count.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Fusion Inhibitors work by preventing the virus from entering the host's cells but do not inhibit RNA from forming DNA.

B. Integrase Inhibitors block the integration of viral DNA into the host's DNA but do not directly inhibit the reverse transcription process.

C. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs) inhibit reverse transcriptase, the enzyme responsible for converting viral RNA into DNA, thus directly targeting this crucial stage of the HIV lifecycle.

D. Protease Inhibitors inhibit the protease enzyme involved in the maturation of the virus but do not affect the reverse transcription process.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2026, All Right Reserved.