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A 65-year-old female presents with confusion, headache, and muscle weakness. Her sodium level is 120 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate based on her condition?

A.

Administer hypertonic saline and restrict water intake

B.

Start fluid restriction and administer a loop diuretic

C.

Administer isotonic saline and encourage oral fluid intake

D.

Increase oral sodium intake and administer an antiemetic

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Administering hypertonic saline (3% NaCl) is appropriate for treating severe hyponatremia, as it helps to raise sodium levels safely. Restricting water intake is also necessary to prevent further dilution of sodium.  

 

B. Fluid restriction with a loop diuretic may not be effective in this scenario and can worsen the hyponatremia by causing further fluid loss without addressing the sodium levels.  

 

C. Isotonic saline is not indicated for correcting severe hyponatremia, and encouraging oral fluid intake could exacerbate the condition.  

 

D. Increasing oral sodium intake is not sufficient for immediate correction of severe hyponatremia and does not address the acute nature of the client’s symptoms.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Flushing of the skin is not typical in hypovolemic shock; rather, the skin is usually cool and clammy due to vasoconstriction.

B. Oliguria, or decreased urine output, is expected in hypovolemic shock as the kidneys receive less blood flow, leading to reduced urine production.

C. Bradypnea is not a common finding in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is typically observed due to compensatory mechanisms for hypoxia and acidosis.

D. Hypertension is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, the client typically presents with hypotension due to decreased blood volume and pressure.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The CD4-T-cell count of 180 cells/mm3 is a critical measure of immune function in an HIV-positive client, indicating progression of the disease and risk for opportunistic infections. Values below 200 cells/mm3 signify the client has progressed to AIDS.

B. A positive Western blot test confirms the presence of HIV but does not indicate the immediate health risk or necessary interventions.

C. A platelet count of 150,000/mm3 is within the normal range, thus not indicative of any urgent concerns.

D. A WBC count of 5,000/mm3 is also within normal limits and does not highlight an immediate issue that needs addressing compared to the CD4 count.

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