A 45-year-old male patient present to the emergency department with a severe head injury following a car accident. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 8, and he shows signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to manage his ICP?
Administering mannitol intravenously
Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate
Administering a high-dose corticosteroid
Performing a lumbar puncture immediately
The Correct Answer is A
A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.
B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.
C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.
D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Initiation of a high-sodium diet. A high-sodium diet is not indicated in pulmonary embolism management; it could worsen fluid retention and cardiovascular strain.
B. Application of a cast to the affected limb. Casting is not appropriate for pulmonary embolism, as it is not an orthopedic injury. Immobilization could increase the risk of further clot formation.
C. Administration of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulant therapy, such as heparin or warfarin, is the primary treatment for pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation and allow the body to dissolve the clot.
D. Administration of bronchodilators. Bronchodilators may alleviate respiratory symptoms but do not treat the underlying clot in pulmonary embolism. Anticoagulation remains the primary treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.