A 45-year-old male patient present to the emergency department with a severe head injury following a car accident. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 8, and he shows signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to manage his ICP?
Administering mannitol intravenously
Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate
Administering a high-dose corticosteroid
Performing a lumbar puncture immediately
The Correct Answer is A
A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.
B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.
C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.
D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys. Reduced blood flow to the kidneys, or renal hypoperfusion, decreases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because less blood is being filtered through the kidneys. This can occur in conditions such as shock, severe dehydration, or heart failure, but it is not the primary mechanism in acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
B. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells. In ATN, the injury to renal tubular cells impairs their function, leading to reduced reabsorption and filtration ability, which contributes to the decrease in GFR.
C. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because inflammatory cells invade the already damaged kidneys. While inflammation may be present, it is not the primary cause of decreased GFR in acute tubular necrosis; reduced blood flow and tubular cell injury are more direct causes.
D. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is obstruction leading to the filtration system backing up and eventually shutting the kidneys down. Obstruction is not typically a characteristic of acute tubular necrosis; ATN is usually caused by ischemic or toxic injury, not physical obstruction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs): IGRAs are useful for detecting TB infection but do not confirm active TB disease. They measure the immune response to TB bacteria but don’t differentiate between latent and active infection.
B. Sputum culture: Sputum culture is the gold standard for confirming active TB because it identifies Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria directly, confirming active infection.
C. Tuberculin Skin Test (TST): The TST can indicate TB infection but cannot distinguish between latent and active TB, making it unsuitable as a confirmatory test for active disease.
D. Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray can show signs suggestive of TB but cannot confirm the presence of TB bacteria, so it is not definitive for diagnosing active TB.