A 40-year old patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis (TB). What is the confirmatory test for TB?
Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAS)
Sputum culture
Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)
Chest X-ray
The Correct Answer is B
A. Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs): IGRAs are useful for detecting TB infection but do not confirm active TB disease. They measure the immune response to TB bacteria but don’t differentiate between latent and active infection.
B. Sputum culture: Sputum culture is the gold standard for confirming active TB because it identifies Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria directly, confirming active infection.
C. Tuberculin Skin Test (TST): The TST can indicate TB infection but cannot distinguish between latent and active TB, making it unsuitable as a confirmatory test for active disease.
D. Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray can show signs suggestive of TB but cannot confirm the presence of TB bacteria, so it is not definitive for diagnosing active TB.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation on the same side as the injury. In Brown-Sequard syndrome, pain, temperature, and light touch are typically lost on the opposite (contralateral) side of the injury.
B. Loss of motor function and deep pressure sensation on the opposite side of the injury. Motor function and deep pressure sensation loss occur on the same side (ipsilateral) as the injury.
C. Loss of motor function and position sense on the same side as the injury. Brown-Sequard syndrome is a spinal cord hemisection injury leading to loss of motor function and proprioception on the same side as the injury.
D. Loss of motor function with preserved pain and temperature sensation in the lower extremities. Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the opposite side of the injury in Brown-Sequard syndrome, not preserved.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.
B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.
C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.
D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.