A 40-year old patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis (TB). What is the confirmatory test for TB?
Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAS)
Sputum culture
Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)
Chest X-ray
The Correct Answer is B
A. Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs): IGRAs are useful for detecting TB infection but do not confirm active TB disease. They measure the immune response to TB bacteria but don’t differentiate between latent and active infection.
B. Sputum culture: Sputum culture is the gold standard for confirming active TB because it identifies Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria directly, confirming active infection.
C. Tuberculin Skin Test (TST): The TST can indicate TB infection but cannot distinguish between latent and active TB, making it unsuitable as a confirmatory test for active disease.
D. Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray can show signs suggestive of TB but cannot confirm the presence of TB bacteria, so it is not definitive for diagnosing active TB.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Initiate intravenous fluid therapy. While fluid therapy is essential to support circulation and reduce the risk of shock, oxygenation takes priority in fat embolism management.
B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for fat embolism; management focuses on supportive care, particularly respiratory support.
C. Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. High-flow oxygen is the first priority to address hypoxia caused by fat embolism and should be administered immediately to maintain adequate oxygenation.
D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs). SCDs are used to prevent venous thromboembolism, but they do not help with the treatment of fat embolism.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis generally presents with redness and discharge but does not cause elevated intraocular pressure, severe pain, or visual disturbances like halos.
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, nausea, and vomiting, along with elevated intraocular pressure and a cloudy cornea.
C. Retinal detachment. Retinal detachment may cause sudden vision loss or flashing lights but typically lacks pain, nausea, or vomiting, and does not affect intraocular pressure.
D. Migraine with aura. A migraine with aura may cause visual disturbances but does not present with eye pain, red eye, or elevated intraocular pressure.