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A 40-year old patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis (TB). What is the confirmatory test for TB?

A.

Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAS)

B.

Sputum culture

C.

Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)

D.

Chest X-ray

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Interferon Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs): IGRAs are useful for detecting TB infection but do not confirm active TB disease. They measure the immune response to TB bacteria but don’t differentiate between latent and active infection.

 

B. Sputum culture: Sputum culture is the gold standard for confirming active TB because it identifies Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria directly, confirming active infection.

 

C. Tuberculin Skin Test (TST): The TST can indicate TB infection but cannot distinguish between latent and active TB, making it unsuitable as a confirmatory test for active disease.

 

D. Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray can show signs suggestive of TB but cannot confirm the presence of TB bacteria, so it is not definitive for diagnosing active TB.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

A. A clean catch urinalysis and urine culture: A urinalysis and culture are essential to identify the presence of infection, type of bacteria, and appropriate antibiotic sensitivity.

B. Foley catheter placement: Foley catheters are not routinely indicated for suspected urinary tract infections (UTIs) unless there is an issue with urinary retention or other specific medical indication.

C. Broad-spectrum antibiotic: Initiating a broad-spectrum antibiotic may be appropriate while waiting for culture results to address infection.

D. 0.9% sodium chloride infusion at 100 ml/hr: IV fluids are not typically necessary for a UTI unless the patient is dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids.

E. WBC count: A WBC count can help assess the systemic inflammatory response and gauge the severity of the infection.

F. Blood cultures × 2: Blood cultures are generally reserved for cases where a systemic infection or sepsis is suspected, which is not indicated by this patient's symptoms alone.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Initiation of a high-sodium diet. A high-sodium diet is not indicated in pulmonary embolism management; it could worsen fluid retention and cardiovascular strain.

B. Application of a cast to the affected limb. Casting is not appropriate for pulmonary embolism, as it is not an orthopedic injury. Immobilization could increase the risk of further clot formation.

C. Administration of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulant therapy, such as heparin or warfarin, is the primary treatment for pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation and allow the body to dissolve the clot.

D. Administration of bronchodilators. Bronchodilators may alleviate respiratory symptoms but do not treat the underlying clot in pulmonary embolism. Anticoagulation remains the primary treatment.

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