A 38-year-old multigravida returns to the clinic for a routine prenatal visit at 36 weeks gestation. Assessment findings include: blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg; pulse, 80 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min. The nurse suspects preeclampsia.
What additional finding would the nurse assess for?
Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Uterine contractions.
Proteinuria.
Increased blood glucose level.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Decreased deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with preeclampsia. In fact, hyperreflexia or increased deep tendon reflexes might be observed due to central nervous
system irritability in preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Uterine contractions are related to labor and not a specific indicator of preeclampsia. While they might occur simultaneously, they are not diagnostic of preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. It indicates kidney involvement and is used along with elevated blood pressure to diagnose this condition.
Choice D rationale
Increased blood glucose levels are associated with gestational diabetes rather than preeclampsia. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria are the hallmarks of preeclampsia.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist
longer and requires treatment.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and
persistent symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe
functional impairment.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through
support and reassurance.
Choice E rationale
Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.