While you are taking Monique's vital signs and performing a postpartum assessment 4 hours after delivery, she tells you she is feeling lightheaded. She has a history of chronic hypertension and obesity.
Her vital signs are blood pressure 85/57 mm Hg, pulse 132, respirations 28, oxygen saturation 94%. Her uterus is boggy at midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus.
What would be your next steps and anticipated orders?
Massage her fundus until firm and ensure IV access.
Orders for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM and an oxytocin bolus.
Orders for carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM. .
Orders for carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM. .
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale
Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, reducing bleeding and promoting firmness in the uterus. Ensuring IV access is critical for administering medications and
fluids quickly.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to prevent and control postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions. Oxytocin bolus also helps stimulate contractions, preventing
further blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) is another uterotonic agent used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. Its use depends on the patient's
response to other treatments.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of preterm birth is the principal risk factor for predicting preterm birth. Previous preterm births significantly increase the likelihood of subsequent preterm deliveries due to
underlying etiological factors.
Choice B rationale
Low prepregnancy weight is a risk factor but not as significant as a history of preterm birth. It can contribute to complications in pregnancy but does not have the same predictive value.
Choice C rationale
Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of preterm birth but is not the principal risk factor. It is a modifiable behavior that contributes to poor pregnancy outcomes.
Choice D rationale
Obesity can impact pregnancy outcomes but is not the principal risk factor for preterm birth. It is associated with other complications rather than directly predicting preterm delivery.