While you are taking Monique's vital signs and performing a postpartum assessment 4 hours after delivery, she tells you she is feeling lightheaded. She has a history of chronic hypertension and obesity.
Her vital signs are blood pressure 85/57 mm Hg, pulse 132, respirations 28, oxygen saturation 94%. Her uterus is boggy at midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus.
What would be your next steps and anticipated orders?
Massage her fundus until firm and ensure IV access.
Orders for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM and an oxytocin bolus.
Orders for carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM. .
Orders for carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM. .
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale
Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, reducing bleeding and promoting firmness in the uterus. Ensuring IV access is critical for administering medications and
fluids quickly.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to prevent and control postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions. Oxytocin bolus also helps stimulate contractions, preventing
further blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) is another uterotonic agent used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. Its use depends on the patient's
response to other treatments.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While maternal lacerations are a risk during childbirth, they are not the greatest risk in cases of fetal dystocia. The focus is primarily on fetal wellbeing.
Choice B rationale
Fetal injury such as bruising can occur with dystocia, but the primary concern is the potential for severe, life-threatening complications.
Choice C rationale
Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor is the greatest risk with fetal dystocia. Prolonged labor can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, causing asphyxia and
potential brain injury.
Choice D rationale
Increased consideration for a cesarean delivery is a possible outcome of fetal dystocia, but it is a management decision rather than a direct risk to the baby’s immediate health.