While you are taking Monique's vital signs and performing a postpartum assessment 4 hours after delivery, she tells you she is feeling lightheaded. She has a history of chronic hypertension and obesity.
Her vital signs are blood pressure 85/57 mm Hg, pulse 132, respirations 28, oxygen saturation 94%. Her uterus is boggy at midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus.
What would be your next steps and anticipated orders?
Massage her fundus until firm and ensure IV access.
Orders for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM and an oxytocin bolus.
Orders for carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM. .
Orders for carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM. .
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale
Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, reducing bleeding and promoting firmness in the uterus. Ensuring IV access is critical for administering medications and
fluids quickly.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to prevent and control postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions. Oxytocin bolus also helps stimulate contractions, preventing
further blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) is another uterotonic agent used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. Its use depends on the patient's
response to other treatments.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions. It is especially useful in cases like this where rapid uterine tone is needed.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclamptic patients, not to manage postpartum hemorrhage. This choice is incorrect in this context.
Choice C rationale
Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is also used for treating postpartum hemorrhage but is typically a secondary option to methylergonovine and may have more side effects.
Choice D rationale
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is used to replace clotting factors in cases of coagulopathy, not as a primary intervention for postpartum hemorrhage in this patient.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.