Two days after surgery, a client experiences incisional pain while dangling at the bedside and refuses to ambulate as prescribed. The nurse establishes a problem of "Activity intolerance related to pain." Based on this problem, which outcome statement is best for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Avoid pain-causing activity.
Ambulate without discomfort.
Show evidence of incision healing.
Take analgesics as prescribed.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Avoiding pain-causing activities would not address the problem of activity intolerance, nor would it promote recovery.
B. The goal is for the client to ambulate with minimal or no discomfort, which would indicate successful pain management and adherence to the postoperative plan.
C. Incision healing is important but does not directly relate to the problem of activity intolerance due to pain.
D. Taking analgesics as prescribed is a component of managing pain, but the outcome should focus on the result of this intervention, which is pain-free ambulation.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. While antibiotics can influence blood glucose, the primary reason for insulin in this context is the effect of steroids and infection on blood glucose levels.
B. Methylprednisolone, a steroid, can increase blood glucose levels, necessitating the use of insulin to manage elevated glucose levels during illness.
C. The need for insulin is related to the current hospitalization and medication effects, not necessarily a long-term change in diabetes management.
D. The ease of control is less relevant compared to the fact that steroids and infection can significantly impact blood glucose levels, necessitating insulin during hospitalization.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pyridostigmine is most effective when taken before meals to improve muscle strength for swallowing. Knowing the client's recent oral intake helps in timing the medication appropriately.
B. Difficulty with urination is not directly related to pyridostigmine use.
C. Trouble sleeping is not typically associated with pyridostigmine.
D. Unexplained weight loss may be related to myasthenia gravis but is not directly relevant to the immediate administration of pyridostigmine.