Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

The nurse provides a client with a dose of the beta-selective adrenergic agonist isoproterenol. Which assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

A.

Constricted pupils

B.

Warm, dry skin

C.

Increased heart rate

D.

Decreased urine output

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Constricted pupils are not an expected response to isoproterenol, which generally causes dilation of the pupils due to sympathetic stimulation.  

 

B. Warm, dry skin is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of isoproterenol; it could result from various factors unrelated to the medication's action.  

 

C. Increased heart rate indicates that isoproterenol, which is a beta-agonist, is effectively stimulating the beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to increased cardiac output and heart rate.  

 

D. Decreased urine output is not a sign of effectiveness and could indicate adverse effects such as reduced renal perfusion.  


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.

B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.

C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.

D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; that action is characteristic of sulfonylureas.

B. Metformin does not increase the absorption of glucose in the intestines; rather, it works by reducing the amount of glucose released into the bloodstream.

C. Metformin primarily decreases glucose production in the liver and improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues, which helps lower blood sugar levels. This makes it effective for managing type 2 diabetes.

D. While metformin can have effects on fat metabolism, its primary action is not to decrease fat breakdown but to manage blood glucose levels.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.