The nurse in a prenatal clinic is reviewing the files of four patients scheduled for visits.
Which patient does the nurse identify as having the highest-risk pregnancy?
The patient who is 37 years of age, obese, and experiencing pregnancy-induced hypertension.
The patient with preexisting hypertension who is currently pregnant with twins.
The patient who is 16 years of age just diagnosed with gestational diabetes.
The patient who is 28 years old and delivered a premature neonate 3 years prior.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking blood sugar is important in gestational diabetes but isn't immediate priority in a triage setting compared to assessing urgent conditions that could harm the fetus or mother immediately.
Choice B rationale
Assessing vaginal blood loss post-abortion is crucial, but in the presence of ruptured membranes, fetal heart rate checks take precedence to ensure the fetus's immediate well-being.
Choice C rationale
Assessing patellar reflexes in pre-eclampsia management is significant, but immediate priority in labor and delivery triage goes to ensuring fetal safety after membrane rupture.
Choice D rationale
Checking the fetal heart rate after membrane rupture is a priority because it provides immediate information about the fetus's status and any potential complications like cord prolapse or distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.