The nurse in a prenatal clinic is reviewing the files of four patients scheduled for visits.
Which patient does the nurse identify as having the highest-risk pregnancy?
The patient who is 37 years of age, obese, and experiencing pregnancy-induced hypertension.
The patient with preexisting hypertension who is currently pregnant with twins.
The patient who is 16 years of age just diagnosed with gestational diabetes.
The patient who is 28 years old and delivered a premature neonate 3 years prior.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing for vaginal bleeding in PPROM is generally not necessary unless there is an indication of placental issues or other complications. PPROM involves the rupture of
membranes before 37 weeks, primarily requiring monitoring for infection and fetal wellbeing rather than routine bleeding checks.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring for signs of infection is critical after PPROM because the rupture increases the risk of ascending infections. The nurse should diligently assess for fever, foul-smelling
discharge, and other signs of infection to initiate timely interventions, preserving both maternal and fetal health.
Choice C rationale
Checking for cervical dilation in PPROM is important because premature rupture of membranes can lead to preterm labor. Monitoring dilation helps determine if labor is imminent,
influencing decisions regarding maternal and neonatal care to prevent complications from premature birth.
Choice D rationale
Watching for fetal compromise is necessary following PPROM as premature rupture of membranes can lead to umbilical cord compression or other complications affecting fetal oxygenation. Continuous fetal monitoring helps detect early signs of distress, allowing timely intervention to ensure fetal safety.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering oxytocin during shoulder dystocia can exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, making it harder to deliver the baby's shoulder.
Choice B rationale
Flexing the client's thighs sharply toward her abdomen, known as the McRoberts maneuver, helps to widen the pelvis and can often resolve shoulder dystocia by changing the angle of the pelvic bones.
Choice C rationale
While applying oxygen is a standard practice to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation, it does not specifically address shoulder dystocia and is not a primary intervention.
Choice D rationale
Applying downward pressure on the fundus is contraindicated as it can worsen shoulder dystocia by further impacting the shoulder against the pelvic bone.