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The nurse documents that the client's pupillary reaction is PERRLA. What is the "A" in this assessment describing about the client's eyes?

A.

Changes in peripheral vision in response to light

B.

Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light

C.

Pupillary dilation when looking at a near object

D.

Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Changes in peripheral vision in response to light: While peripheral vision is important in a comprehensive eye assessment, it is not specifically evaluated through the PERRLA acronym. PERRLA focuses on how the pupils respond to light and accommodation, not on peripheral vision changes.

 

B) Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light: Involuntary blinking is part of a reflex action known as the blink reflex, which helps protect the eyes from bright lights and foreign objects. However, this response is not what the "A" in PERRLA refers to, which is more specifically about pupillary reactions to focus.

 

C) Pupillary dilation when looking at a near object: When focusing on a near object, the pupils actually constrict rather than dilate. This process, known as accommodation, is important for clear vision at close distances but does not pertain to the dilation of pupils.

 

D) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object: The "A" in PERRLA stands for accommodation, which specifically refers to the pupils constricting when a person looks at a nearby object. This reaction helps the eyes focus properly and is a normal finding in a healthy neurological assessment. Thus, option D accurately describes the "A" in the PERRLA assessment.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Motor component of IV (Trochlear): The trochlear nerve primarily controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which is responsible for downward and lateral eye movements. The findings described do not relate to eye movement and therefore do not indicate dysfunction of this nerve.



B) Motor and sensory components of XI (Accessory): The accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, primarily affecting head rotation and shoulder elevation. The symptoms noted in the assessment do not pertain to these muscle functions, so this option is not correct.

C) Motor component of VII (Facial): The signs of asymmetry in frowning, uneven eyebrow lifting, sagging eyelids, and air escaping when puffing the cheeks are characteristic of dysfunction in the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, and impairment would lead to the described asymmetrical movements.

D) Motor component of X (Vagus) and sensory component of XII (Hypoglossal): The vagus nerve affects autonomic functions and some swallowing muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movements. Neither nerve is primarily responsible for the facial expressions described in the assessment findings, making this option incorrect.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Muscle strength: While muscle strength can influence gait, it specifically refers to the ability of muscles to exert force against resistance. Assessing muscle strength involves different techniques, such as manual muscle testing, rather than observing arm and leg movements.

B) Gait: The observation that both arms swing freely in alternation with leg swings is a direct assessment of the patient's gait. A normal gait pattern includes coordinated movements of the arms and legs, indicating proper motor function and balance.

C) Alignment: This term refers to the positioning of the body and its parts in relation to one another. While alignment can impact gait, it is not specifically assessed by observing the movement of the arms and legs.

D) Joint function: Joint function assessment typically focuses on the range of motion, stability, and mobility of individual joints. Observing the swing of arms and legs provides insight into overall gait rather than specific joint function.

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