An elderly patient has been having copious vomiting for several days and has become lethargic and weak. His mucous membranes are dry. He has poor skin turgor. Lab work shows: sodium of 145, ABGs: pH 7.58, PCO2 38, HCO3 38, PO2 95, SO2 98. Which response best explains the patient’s lethargy and weakness?
The hypokalemia brought on severe muscle spasms, causing exhaustion.
Due to his low potassium, his cells rely on glycolysis.
Due to the hypokalemia, his cells are hyperpolarized.
The hypernatremia caused cellular dehydration, leading to lethargy.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and cramps, but it does not typically lead to severe muscle spasms causing exhaustion. The patient’s symptoms of lethargy and weakness are more likely related to electrolyte imbalances and dehydration rather than muscle spasms.
Choice B rationale
While low potassium levels can affect cellular metabolism, the primary issue here is not glycolysis. The patient’s symptoms are more consistent with dehydration and electrolyte imbalances rather than a metabolic shift to glycolysis.
Choice C rationale
Hypokalemia can cause cells to become hyperpolarized, leading to muscle weakness and decreased reflexes. However, the patient’s symptoms of lethargy and weakness are more likely due to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances rather than cellular hyperpolarization.
Choice D rationale
Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels, can cause cellular dehydration, leading to symptoms such as lethargy and weakness. The patient’s lab results and clinical presentation are consistent with hypernatremia-induced cellular dehydration, which explains his symptoms.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
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Choice B rationale
Chest pain and shortness of breath are more indicative of cardiovascular or respiratory issues, not meningitis.
Choice C rationale
Abdominal pain and diarrhea are gastrointestinal symptoms and are not typically associated with meningitis.
Choice D rationale
Joint pain and swelling are more indicative of rheumatologic conditions, not meningitis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing coronary artery constriction by giving aspirin is a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation and improving blood flow in the coronary arteries. This helps to alleviate chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Increasing afterload for the left ventricle to maximize cardiac output is not a desirable objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing afterload would increase the workload on the heart, which is counterproductive in patients with angina. The goal is to reduce the heart’s workload and improve blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Increasing preload to reduce overall cardiac workload is not a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing preload would increase the volume of blood returning to the heart, potentially worsening symptoms. The focus is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving coronary perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Reducing arterial inflammation by administering statins is a long-term strategy for managing cardiovascular disease, but it is not the immediate objective in managing unstable angina. Statins help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce inflammation, but the immediate goal in unstable angina is to relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.