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A nurse is admitting a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and in active labor. The client reports being positive for group B streptococcus (GBS) when screened at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to take?

 

A.

Prepare for a cesarean birth.

B.

Administer IV antibiotic prophylaxis.

C.

Obtain a vaginal culture.

D.

Administer metronidazole orally.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.

 

Choice B rationale

IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.

 

Choice C rationale

Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.

 

Choice D rationale

Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Wound infection usually presents with redness, warmth, and swelling, not just yellow exudate. The presence of yellow exudate alone typically does not indicate an infection.

Choice B rationale

Ulceration would involve the breakdown of skin or tissue, which is not indicated by the presence of yellow exudate. Ulcerations are more severe and painful than normal post-

circumcision healing.

Choice C rationale

Exposure to urine can cause irritation but does not typically result in yellow exudate. Proper diapering and cleaning prevent this irritation, and exudate is part of the healing process,

not a result of urine exposure.

Choice D rationale

Healing is indicated by the presence of yellow exudate, which is a normal part of the healing process post-circumcision. It signifies that the glans is recovering as expected. .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Instituting droplet precautions is not necessary for herpes simplex virus (HSV). HSV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids or lesions, not through respiratory droplets.

Choice B rationale

Administering ceftriaxone sodium is not appropriate for HSV. Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, whereas HSV is a viral infection and requires antiviral treatment.

Choice C rationale

Informing the client they should bottlefeed the newborn is not necessary. Mothers with HSV can breastfeed as long as there are no herpetic lesions on the breast. Proper hand hygiene and preventive measures should be taken to avoid transmission.

Choice D rationale

Obtaining surface cultures from the newborn is the appropriate action. This helps in detecting the presence of HSV and initiating antiviral treatment if necessary. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing severe complications associated with neonatal HSV infection.

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