A nurse is admitting a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and in active labor. The client reports being positive for group B streptococcus (GBS) when screened at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to take?
Prepare for a cesarean birth.
Administer IV antibiotic prophylaxis.
Obtain a vaginal culture.
Administer metronidazole orally.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Preparing for a cesarean birth is not an immediate necessity unless there are complications that warrant such intervention. Cesarean births are typically reserved for situations where
vaginal delivery poses a risk to the mother or the baby.
Choice B rationale
Administering IV antibiotic prophylaxis is critical in preventing potential infections during the labor process, especially given the early gestation period. This helps in safeguarding both
the mother and the fetus from infections like group B streptococcus.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture is generally done to check for infections such as bacterial vaginosis or sexually transmitted infections. However, it is not an immediate priority when the
patient is already in active labor.
Choice D rationale
Administering metronidazole orally is used to treat bacterial infections but is not an immediate action required in this scenario. Metronidazole may not be the most suitable choice
during labor as it does not provide immediate infection prevention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular heartbeat (palpitations or arrhythmias) can indicate a serious cardiovascular side effect of nifedipine. It requires immediate medical attention as it could compromise
maternal and fetal circulation.
Choice B rationale
Hair loss is not a known adverse effect of nifedipine and generally does not pose a significant health risk. It is more commonly associated with hormonal changes rather than
medication side effects.
Choice C rationale
Increased salivation is not a common side effect of nifedipine. Nifedipine primarily affects the cardiovascular system rather than salivary glands.
Choice D rationale
Pause is not a recognized adverse effect related to nifedipine usage. The term itself is ambiguous and not typically associated with the pharmacological profile of nifedipine.