Mia is a G7P6 who is 39 weeks and 2 days. She has come to obstetrics (OB) triage complaining of contraction pain every 3 to 5 minutes, has a large amount of bloody show, and tells you her last two deliveries took about 2 hours.
What would you expect her diagnosis to be and what would be your next step?
She is experiencing labor dystocia. The provider will be called to assess the need for an immediate cesarean section, and you would begin to prepare the patient for surgery.
She is at risk for a precipitous labor. The provider will be called to the bedside immediately while you remain at Mia's side providing support and preparing her for delivery.
She is at risk for cephalopelvic disproportion. The provider will be called to assess the need for a forceps delivery, and you will call the blood bank in order to have blood on standby.
She is experiencing false labor. The provider will be called to reassess and you will monitor her closely.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Labor dystocia involves prolonged labor. Her fast delivery history suggests the opposite, indicating rapid labor progress.
Choice B rationale
Rapid labor progression, frequent contractions, and previous short labors suggest she is at risk for precipitous labor, requiring immediate preparation for delivery.
Choice C rationale
Cephalopelvic disproportion indicates size mismatch between baby and pelvis, not rapid labor. Her history of quick deliveries does not align with this condition.
Choice D rationale
False labor typically involves irregular, less intense contractions. Her regular, intense contractions and labor history suggest active labor, not false labor.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Retained tissue can cause postpartum hemorrhage, but with a firm uterus and no other signs of retained placenta, this is less likely the cause here.
Choice B rationale
Trauma is the most likely cause of increased bleeding in this scenario. The prolonged oxytocin induction and macrosomic infant suggest a higher risk of lacerations or uterine atony
despite the firm uterus.
Choice C rationale
Thrombin disorders cause bleeding due to clotting issues. However, this patient shows signs of active bleeding and clotting, making this less likely.
Choice D rationale
Uterine atony, indicated by a soft, boggy uterus, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, but in this case, the uterus is firm, so it's less likely to be the cause.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.