Mia is a G7P6 who is 39 weeks and 2 days. She has come to obstetrics (OB) triage complaining of contraction pain every 3 to 5 minutes, has a large amount of bloody show, and tells you her last two deliveries took about 2 hours.
What would you expect her diagnosis to be and what would be your next step?
She is experiencing labor dystocia. The provider will be called to assess the need for an immediate cesarean section, and you would begin to prepare the patient for surgery.
She is at risk for a precipitous labor. The provider will be called to the bedside immediately while you remain at Mia's side providing support and preparing her for delivery.
She is at risk for cephalopelvic disproportion. The provider will be called to assess the need for a forceps delivery, and you will call the blood bank in order to have blood on standby.
She is experiencing false labor. The provider will be called to reassess and you will monitor her closely.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Labor dystocia involves prolonged labor. Her fast delivery history suggests the opposite, indicating rapid labor progress.
Choice B rationale
Rapid labor progression, frequent contractions, and previous short labors suggest she is at risk for precipitous labor, requiring immediate preparation for delivery.
Choice C rationale
Cephalopelvic disproportion indicates size mismatch between baby and pelvis, not rapid labor. Her history of quick deliveries does not align with this condition.
Choice D rationale
False labor typically involves irregular, less intense contractions. Her regular, intense contractions and labor history suggest active labor, not false labor.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its
potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely
used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding
takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase
the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and
control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While maternal lacerations are a risk during childbirth, they are not the greatest risk in cases of fetal dystocia. The focus is primarily on fetal wellbeing.
Choice B rationale
Fetal injury such as bruising can occur with dystocia, but the primary concern is the potential for severe, life-threatening complications.
Choice C rationale
Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor is the greatest risk with fetal dystocia. Prolonged labor can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, causing asphyxia and
potential brain injury.
Choice D rationale
Increased consideration for a cesarean delivery is a possible outcome of fetal dystocia, but it is a management decision rather than a direct risk to the baby’s immediate health.