In which of the following situations should a nurse report a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
The woman complains of numbness in the toes and heel of one foot.
The woman has cramping pain in a calf that is relieved when the foot is dorsiflexed.
The veins in the ankle of one of the woman's legs are spider-like and purple.
The calf of one of the woman's legs is swollen, red, and warm to touch.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.
Choice B rationale
Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.
Choice C rationale
Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.
Choice D rationale
Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Massaging the fundus can help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding. Ensuring IV access is crucial for administering medications rapidly. Methylergonovine (Methergine) and oxytocin help stimulate uterine contractions and reduce postpartum hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening.
Choice B rationale
Administering pain medication might be necessary, but it doesn't address the immediate issue of uterine atony and hemorrhage. Surgical intervention is a last resort and should be prepared for only if medical management fails.
Choice C rationale
Reassessing vital signs and monitoring is important, but it doesn't provide an immediate solution to the bleeding and uterine atony. Immediate action to contract the uterus is crucial.
Choice D rationale
Contacting the attending physician is important, but immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and address uterine atony is critical to prevent further complications.