In which of the following situations should a nurse report a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
The woman complains of numbness in the toes and heel of one foot.
The woman has cramping pain in a calf that is relieved when the foot is dorsiflexed.
The veins in the ankle of one of the woman's legs are spider-like and purple.
The calf of one of the woman's legs is swollen, red, and warm to touch.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.
Choice B rationale
Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.
Choice C rationale
Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.
Choice D rationale
Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its
potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely
used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding
takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase
the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and
control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.
Choice B rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.
Choice C rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.