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A patient who is at 39 weeks' gestation is scheduled for amniotomy.
The nurse is aware that which criteria must be met before the procedure?

A.

Prior amniotic fluid leakage must be validated before the procedure.

B.

The fetal head is currently engaged in the maternal pelvis.

C.

The nurse must have certification to perform the procedure.

D.

Ultrasound indicates the umbilical cord is away from the cervix.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Prior amniotic fluid leakage is not a required criterion for amniotomy. The main concern is cervical readiness and fetal head position, not previous leakage.

 

Choice B rationale

The fetal head engaged in the maternal pelvis ensures proper pressure and position for safe amniotomy. Engagement reduces the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and injury.

 

Choice C rationale

Certification of the nurse for amniotomy is not a standard criterion. The procedure is performed by qualified professionals, but certification isn't a prerequisite for the procedure to be scheduled.

 

Choice D rationale

Ultrasound to check the umbilical cord's position isn't a standard pre-amniotomy criterion. While it can be useful, the primary concern is the fetal head engagement and cervical readiness.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While maternal lacerations are a risk during childbirth, they are not the greatest risk in cases of fetal dystocia. The focus is primarily on fetal wellbeing.

Choice B rationale

Fetal injury such as bruising can occur with dystocia, but the primary concern is the potential for severe, life-threatening complications.

Choice C rationale

Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor is the greatest risk with fetal dystocia. Prolonged labor can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, causing asphyxia and

potential brain injury.

Choice D rationale

Increased consideration for a cesarean delivery is a possible outcome of fetal dystocia, but it is a management decision rather than a direct risk to the baby’s immediate health.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the

likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.

Choice B rationale

A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications

associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.

Choice C rationale

A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to

complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.

Choice D rationale

A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative

risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .

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