A patient who is at 39 weeks' gestation is scheduled for amniotomy.
The nurse is aware that which criteria must be met before the procedure?
Prior amniotic fluid leakage must be validated before the procedure.
The fetal head is currently engaged in the maternal pelvis.
The nurse must have certification to perform the procedure.
Ultrasound indicates the umbilical cord is away from the cervix.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Prior amniotic fluid leakage is not a required criterion for amniotomy. The main concern is cervical readiness and fetal head position, not previous leakage.
Choice B rationale
The fetal head engaged in the maternal pelvis ensures proper pressure and position for safe amniotomy. Engagement reduces the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and injury.
Choice C rationale
Certification of the nurse for amniotomy is not a standard criterion. The procedure is performed by qualified professionals, but certification isn't a prerequisite for the procedure to be scheduled.
Choice D rationale
Ultrasound to check the umbilical cord's position isn't a standard pre-amniotomy criterion. While it can be useful, the primary concern is the fetal head engagement and cervical readiness.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its
potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely
used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding
takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase
the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and
control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .