A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
The drug will be most effective when given orally.
The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route.
The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications.
The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat oral candidiasis (thrush), which is consistent with the client's symptoms of soreness in the mouth and the presence of a white, milky plaque that does not rub off.
B. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections but would not be effective against fungal infections like oral thrush.
C. Metronidazole is an antibiotic and antiprotozoal medication, which is not appropriate for treating oral candidiasis.
D. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat infections caused by certain viruses, such as herpes, and is not effective for fungal infections like thrush.