A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
The drug will be most effective when given orally.
The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route.
The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications.
The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Hydralazine is a vasodilator that does not directly replace ACE inhibitors and is not the preferred alternative for managing hypertension or heart failure.
B. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that is used for different indications and is not a direct substitute for ACE inhibitors.
C. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for fluid management, not as an alternative to ACE inhibitors.
D. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and serves as a suitable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who experience a cough from them, as ARBs do not typically cause this side effect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Asking what the usual pill looks like may not provide clarity and does not address the client's concern directly.
B. While the statement is accurate, it does not provide the client with reassurance or address the reason for the difference in appearance.
C. This response acknowledges the client's concern, offers an explanation about variations in medication appearance due to different manufacturers, and reassures the client that it is the same medication prescribed.
D. Suggesting that the pill is from a different lot number does not address the fact that variations in appearance can occur due to different manufacturers, which is more common and relevant to the situation.