A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
The drug will be most effective when given orally.
The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route.
The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications.
The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Lithium is not considered addictive in the traditional sense, and it does not need to be discontinued after six months unless clinically indicated.
B. Diuretics are generally avoided in patients taking lithium due to the risk of lithium toxicity from altered renal clearance, rather than being a routine prescription for difficulty urinating.
C. Close monitoring of lithium levels is crucial to avoid toxicity and ensure therapeutic efficacy, making this statement correct and essential for the patient’s education.
D. While weight gain can occur with lithium therapy, it is not an indicator of lithium toxicity; symptoms of toxicity include nausea, tremors, and confusion rather than weight gain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While hormonal contraceptives can affect blood pressure, the risk of significant hypertension is less immediate than thromboembolism.
B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding can occur but is generally not as serious as thromboembolism and may resolve with continued use.
C. Combination birth control pills increase the risk of thromboembolic events, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism, making it essential to monitor for signs of these complications.
D. Osteoporosis is a long-term concern but is not an acute effect of combination birth control pills; monitoring for thromboembolism is more critical.