A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
The drug will be most effective when given orally.
The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route.
The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications.
The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.
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Correct Answer is ["B","C","F"]
Explanation
A. Morphine administered intravenously bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and liver, avoiding the first-pass effect entirely.
B. Diphenhydramine in tablet form is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and undergoes significant first-pass metabolism in the liver, affecting its bioavailability.
C. Famotidine in tablet form is also subject to first-pass metabolism, which can reduce its effectiveness.
D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are designed to bypass the first-pass metabolism by being absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes.
E. The same applies to nitroglycerin 10mg sublingual tablets; they also avoid the first-pass effect due to sublingual administration.
F. Acetaminophen is taken orally and undergoes first-pass metabolism in the liver, which can significantly affect its overall bioavailability.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Discontinuing metformin 24 hours before a CT scan is longer than necessary and not standard practice.
B. It is generally recommended that metformin be held for at least 12 hours before the administration of IV contrast to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in clients with renal impairment.
C. Six hours is insufficient time to ensure the medication is cleared from the system, considering the potential risks.
D. Discontinuing metformin for 48 hours is overly cautious and not necessary unless there are complications that arise after the contrast is administered.