A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
The drug will be most effective when given orally.
The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route.
The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications.
The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Oxymetazoline should not be used for more than 3 days because prolonged use can lead to rebound congestion.
B. Oxymetazoline typically does not cause drowsiness, so taking it at bedtime is not necessary.
C. Oxymetazoline has a rapid onset and should not take a week to show effects.
D. Oxymetazoline is a nasal decongestant and is not used for asthma management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A pulse oximetry of 92% indicates mild hypoxia but does not directly contraindicate the use of verapamil.
B. A respiratory rate of 12 is within the normal range for adults and does not indicate a need to hold the medication.
C. A pulse of 78 is within the normal range but should be assessed in the context of the client’s overall condition; however, if the pulse were significantly lower (e.g., <60 bpm), it would necessitate holding the medication due to the risk of bradycardia.
D. A history of myocardial infarction a week ago would warrant caution but is not an absolute reason to hold verapamil unless other contraindications are present, as verapamil can be beneficial for managing hypertension post-MI.