A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic screening.
Which of the following medications should the nurse discuss as the prophylaxis treatment during labor for this client?
Penicillin.
Cefazolin.
Erythromycin.
Vancomycin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Penicillin is the recommended prophylactic treatment for a client at 38 weeks of gestation with a positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic screening. It is highly effective in preventing the transmission of group B strep from mother to baby during labor and delivery. Administering Penicillin reduces the risk of neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis caused by group B strep.
Choice B rationale
Cefazolin is an alternative antibiotic for clients allergic to penicillin. It is less preferred compared to penicillin due to its broader spectrum of activity and potential for resistance. Cefazolin can be used if the client has a non-severe penicillin allergy.
Choice C rationale
Erythromycin is not recommended for group B strep prophylaxis during labor due to its lower efficacy compared to penicillin and cefazolin. It is less effective in preventing neonatal group B strep infections and is used less frequently.
Choice D rationale
Vancomycin is used for clients with a severe penicillin allergy or for those with resistant strains of group B strep. It is a last-resort antibiotic due to its potent effect and potential side effects. It is only used when absolutely necessary.
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Correct Answer is ["B","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes of 1+ are considered normal for a postpartum client and do not typically require immediate follow-up. They indicate slight but definite muscle contraction with reinforcement.
Choice B rationale:
Lateral deviation of the uterus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to address this issue.
Choice C rationale:
A blood pressure of 136/86 mm Hg is within the normal range for a postpartum client and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of preeclampsia or hypertension.
Choice D rationale:
A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 is mild and is expected in the postpartum period. It does not require immediate follow-up unless the pain is severe or unrelieved.
Choice E rationale:
Soft breasts in the immediate postpartum period are normal as milk production has not yet fully begun. This does not require immediate follow-up.
Choice F rationale:
A soft uterine tone indicates uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate follow-up and intervention to ensure the uterus is contracting properly.
Choice G rationale:
A large amount of lochia rubra can be a sign of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess and manage bleeding.
Choice H rationale:
Peripheral edema of 2+ in the bilateral lower extremities is common in postpartum clients due to fluid shifts and does not typically require immediate follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during preg