A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic screening.
Which of the following medications should the nurse discuss as the prophylaxis treatment during labor for this client?
Penicillin.
Cefazolin.
Erythromycin.
Vancomycin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Penicillin is the recommended prophylactic treatment for a client at 38 weeks of gestation with a positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic screening. It is highly effective in preventing the transmission of group B strep from mother to baby during labor and delivery. Administering Penicillin reduces the risk of neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis caused by group B strep.
Choice B rationale
Cefazolin is an alternative antibiotic for clients allergic to penicillin. It is less preferred compared to penicillin due to its broader spectrum of activity and potential for resistance. Cefazolin can be used if the client has a non-severe penicillin allergy.
Choice C rationale
Erythromycin is not recommended for group B strep prophylaxis during labor due to its lower efficacy compared to penicillin and cefazolin. It is less effective in preventing neonatal group B strep infections and is used less frequently.
Choice D rationale
Vancomycin is used for clients with a severe penicillin allergy or for those with resistant strains of group B strep. It is a last-resort antibiotic due to its potent effect and potential side effects. It is only used when absolutely necessary.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"Decreased BP.”. This is correct because hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration, which in turn can cause hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
Choice B rationale
"WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).”. This is incorrect because while WBC count can be elevated due to stress or infection, it is not a primary manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale
"Pruritus.”. This is incorrect because pruritus is not commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. It is more likely related to other conditions like cholestasis of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).”. This is incorrect because an elevated hemoglobin level is not a direct manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum, although dehydration can potentially concentrate blood components and slightly elevate hemoglobin.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Breech presentation is a contraindication for dinoprostone as it increases the risk of complications during labor and delivery. Using dinoprostone to induce labor in a non-vertex presentation can lead to issues such as cord prolapse or obstructed labor, which necessitate a cesarean section for safe delivery.
Choice B rationale:
Terbutaline administration is used to manage preterm labor by relaxing the uterus. While it is relevant in labor management, it does not directly contraindicate the use of dinoprostone. Terbutaline and dinoprostone can be used in conjunction if properly managed.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring showing abnormalities is a potential reason to withhold dinoprostone. Dinoprostone can increase uterine contractions, potentially stressing the fetus. A stable FHR with moderate variability indicates fetal well-being; however, if there were concerns, the provider might withhold dinoprostone.
Choice D rationale:
A WBC count of 9,500/mm³ is within the normal range and does not indicate an infection or condition that would contraindicate dinoprostone use. Elevated WBC count could raise concerns, but in this case, it is normal and not a contraindication.
Choice E rationale:
Lesions noted on the vaginal introitus and labia majora, likely caused by Herpes simplex virus, are a contraindication for dinoprostone. Active genital herpes lesions increase the risk of neonatal herpes transmission, making vaginal delivery risky. In such cases, cesarean delivery is often preferred to prevent transmission.