A nurse is reinforcing teaching about risk factors for preeclampsia with a group of clients who are pregnant. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include in the teaching?
Maternal age of 30 years.
Prepregnancy BMI of 19.
Third pregnancy.
Chronic hypertension.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during preg
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This finding indicates fetal distress. Recurrent variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) can be a sign of umbilical cord compression, which can compromise fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale
Uterine contractions every 6 minutes are within the normal range for the latent phase of labor and do not indicate fetal risk.
Choice C rationale
Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and neurologically intact.
Choice D rationale
Uterine contractions lasting 30 to 45 seconds are typical for the latent phase of labor and do not indicate fetal distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.