A nurse is completing the medical reconciliation on an elderly client taking several medications. Which of the following prescribed medications places this client at risk for orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
furosemide
Simvastatin
Losartan
Nifedipine
Clopidogrel
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A) Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, both of which can contribute to orthostatic hypotension. The medication's diuretic effect can cause a significant drop in blood volume, increasing the risk of low blood pressure upon standing.
B) Simvastatin: This medication is used to lower cholesterol levels and is not associated with orthostatic hypotension. It does not have a direct impact on blood pressure or volume.
C) Losartan: As an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), losartan is used to treat hypertension. It can cause vasodilation and may lead to orthostatic hypotension, particularly in elderly clients or those who are volume-depleted.
D) Nifedipine: This calcium channel blocker is used to treat hypertension and can cause vasodilation. It may lead to orthostatic hypotension as well, especially during dose adjustments or if the client is dehydrated.
E) Clopidogrel: This antiplatelet medication is used to prevent blood clots and does not directly cause orthostatic hypotension. Its primary action is to inhibit platelet aggregation, not to affect blood pressure.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Tachycardia: Propranolol is often used to manage tachycardia by reducing heart rate and controlling excessive adrenergic activity. Therefore, this diagnosis would not warrant clarification of the order; it is an appropriate use of the medication.
B) End-stage kidney failure: While caution is necessary when administering medications in clients with renal impairment, propranolol is primarily metabolized by the liver, and its use is not contraindicated in end-stage kidney failure. However, renal function can affect dosing, so monitoring would be important, but this diagnosis alone wouldn't require clarification.
C) Hypertension: Propranolol is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension, making this diagnosis a valid reason for the medication order. The use of propranolol in this context would not need clarification.
D) Asthma: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, which can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma symptoms. This diagnosis would require the nurse to clarify the order, as beta-blockers are generally contraindicated in clients with asthma due to the risk of respiratory complications. If the client has reactive airway disease, an alternative medication should be considered.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Ambulating soon after surgery: Early ambulation is encouraged for postoperative clients to promote circulation and reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Mobilizing helps prevent stasis of blood in the veins, making this an appropriate action rather than an unsafe one.
B) Flexing her ankles: Ankle flexion exercises can help improve venous return and circulation in the lower extremities. This action is generally recommended to prevent VTE, making it a safe and beneficial practice for postoperative clients.
C) Massaging her legs: Massaging the legs is considered unsafe for a client at risk for VTE. This action can dislodge a thrombus (blood clot) if one is present, leading to potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid leg massages.
D) Elevating her feet: Elevating the feet is a recommended practice to promote venous return and reduce swelling in postoperative clients. This action can help prevent VTE and is generally considered safe and beneficial.