A nurse is completing the medical reconciliation on an elderly client taking several medications. Which of the following prescribed medications places this client at risk for orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
furosemide
Simvastatin
Losartan
Nifedipine
Clopidogrel
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A) Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, both of which can contribute to orthostatic hypotension. The medication's diuretic effect can cause a significant drop in blood volume, increasing the risk of low blood pressure upon standing.
B) Simvastatin: This medication is used to lower cholesterol levels and is not associated with orthostatic hypotension. It does not have a direct impact on blood pressure or volume.
C) Losartan: As an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), losartan is used to treat hypertension. It can cause vasodilation and may lead to orthostatic hypotension, particularly in elderly clients or those who are volume-depleted.
D) Nifedipine: This calcium channel blocker is used to treat hypertension and can cause vasodilation. It may lead to orthostatic hypotension as well, especially during dose adjustments or if the client is dehydrated.
E) Clopidogrel: This antiplatelet medication is used to prevent blood clots and does not directly cause orthostatic hypotension. Its primary action is to inhibit platelet aggregation, not to affect blood pressure.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Ambulating soon after surgery: Early ambulation is encouraged for postoperative clients to promote circulation and reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Mobilizing helps prevent stasis of blood in the veins, making this an appropriate action rather than an unsafe one.
B) Flexing her ankles: Ankle flexion exercises can help improve venous return and circulation in the lower extremities. This action is generally recommended to prevent VTE, making it a safe and beneficial practice for postoperative clients.
C) Massaging her legs: Massaging the legs is considered unsafe for a client at risk for VTE. This action can dislodge a thrombus (blood clot) if one is present, leading to potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid leg massages.
D) Elevating her feet: Elevating the feet is a recommended practice to promote venous return and reduce swelling in postoperative clients. This action can help prevent VTE and is generally considered safe and beneficial.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Vitamin A: While vitamin A can affect various bodily functions, it is not known to have a direct interaction with warfarin. Therefore, it is not considered incompatible with warfarin therapy.
B) Alprazolam: This medication, a benzodiazepine, is primarily used to treat anxiety and does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. Thus, it is not incompatible with warfarin therapy.
C) Vitamin K: This vitamin is a critical consideration when a client is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so an increased intake of vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin, making this the correct answer. Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to prevent fluctuations in their INR levels.
D) Furosemide: This loop diuretic is used to manage conditions such as heart failure and edema. While it may affect electrolyte levels, it does not have a direct interaction that would render it incompatible with warfarin. It can be safely used alongside warfarin with appropriate monitoring.