A nurse is completing the medical reconciliation on an elderly client taking several medications. Which of the following prescribed medications places this client at risk for orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
furosemide
Simvastatin
Losartan
Nifedipine
Clopidogrel
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A) Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, both of which can contribute to orthostatic hypotension. The medication's diuretic effect can cause a significant drop in blood volume, increasing the risk of low blood pressure upon standing.
B) Simvastatin: This medication is used to lower cholesterol levels and is not associated with orthostatic hypotension. It does not have a direct impact on blood pressure or volume.
C) Losartan: As an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), losartan is used to treat hypertension. It can cause vasodilation and may lead to orthostatic hypotension, particularly in elderly clients or those who are volume-depleted.
D) Nifedipine: This calcium channel blocker is used to treat hypertension and can cause vasodilation. It may lead to orthostatic hypotension as well, especially during dose adjustments or if the client is dehydrated.
E) Clopidogrel: This antiplatelet medication is used to prevent blood clots and does not directly cause orthostatic hypotension. Its primary action is to inhibit platelet aggregation, not to affect blood pressure.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Intermittent claudication: This term describes the leg pain and cramping that occurs during physical activity, such as walking, and is relieved by rest. It is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial disease (PAD) and results from insufficient blood flow to the muscles due to narrowed or blocked arteries. The client's description aligns perfectly with this definition.
B) Neuropathy: While neuropathy can cause leg pain, it typically presents differently, often with sensations like tingling, numbness, or burning rather than cramping during activity. Neuropathy does not specifically correlate with the pattern of pain relief upon resting, which is characteristic of intermittent claudication.
C) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT): DVT generally presents with symptoms like swelling, warmth, and tenderness in the affected leg, rather than cramping pain that is related to activity. The pain associated with DVT is not typically relieved by rest, making this option inconsistent with the client’s symptoms.
D) Venous insufficiency: This condition is characterized by symptoms such as swelling, varicosities, and skin changes, primarily in the lower extremities. Pain related to venous insufficiency tends to occur after prolonged standing or sitting and is not typically relieved by rest in the same way as intermittent claudication. Therefore, this option does not accurately describe the client’s experience.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Ambulating soon after surgery: Early ambulation is encouraged for postoperative clients to promote circulation and reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Mobilizing helps prevent stasis of blood in the veins, making this an appropriate action rather than an unsafe one.
B) Flexing her ankles: Ankle flexion exercises can help improve venous return and circulation in the lower extremities. This action is generally recommended to prevent VTE, making it a safe and beneficial practice for postoperative clients.
C) Massaging her legs: Massaging the legs is considered unsafe for a client at risk for VTE. This action can dislodge a thrombus (blood clot) if one is present, leading to potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid leg massages.
D) Elevating her feet: Elevating the feet is a recommended practice to promote venous return and reduce swelling in postoperative clients. This action can help prevent VTE and is generally considered safe and beneficial.