A nurse is caring for a client who is on the electronic fetal monitor and the nurse notices that the client is experiencing tachysystole.
Which of the following describes tachysystole?
A reaction from an epidural.
When the fetus's heart rate drops below baseline.
More than five contractions in 10 minutes.
Initiating the use of Pitocin.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A reaction from an epidural can cause side effects such as hypotension and shivering, but it is not related to tachysystole.
Choice B rationale
When the fetus's heart rate drops below baseline, it is termed bradycardia, not tachysystole. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including cord prolapse or placental insufficiency.
Choice C rationale
Tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes. This condition can lead to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in fetal distress.
Choice D rationale
Pitocin is a medication used to induce labor and can cause tachysystole, but the administration of Pitocin itself is not the definition of tachysystole. It's the increased frequency of contractions that defines the condition.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing
fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the
overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics
and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential
complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.