A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot, which of the following responses should the nurse give?
"Depending on the level of your PT/INR, the clot will begin to dissolve."
"After the first dose, the clot will begin to dissolve."
"It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level."
"Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "Depending on the level of your PT/INR, the clot will begin to dissolve.": This response is misleading, as heparin's effect is not primarily monitored by PT/INR; rather, heparin is monitored by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Moreover, heparin does not directly dissolve clots; it prevents further clot formation.
B. "After the first dose, the clot will begin to dissolve.": This statement inaccurately suggests that heparin has an immediate effect on dissolving existing clots. While heparin acts quickly to inhibit further clotting, it does not lead to the dissolution of clots after the first dose.
C. "It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.": This is not accurate for heparin, which has an immediate effect on coagulation. While the therapeutic effects can be optimized over several days, heparin begins to work right away to prevent further clotting.
D. "Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.": This response accurately describes the mechanism of action of heparin. Heparin prevents the extension of existing clots and the formation of new clots, but it does not actively dissolve clots. This clarification is essential for the client’s understanding of their treatment and expectations regarding DVT management.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) "Acts on the beta cells within the heart and lungs to regulate cardiac rhythm.": This statement is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not primarily act on beta cells. Instead, they block calcium channels in cardiac and smooth muscle, which affects heart contractility and conductivity.
B) "Increases heart rate and increases myocardial contractility.": Calcium channel blockers typically do the opposite; they decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility by inhibiting calcium entry into the heart muscle cells. Therefore, this statement does not accurately describe their mechanism of action.
C) "Reduces the contractility and conductivity of the heart.": This statement accurately reflects the action of calcium channel blockers. By blocking calcium entry, these medications decrease myocardial contractility and slow down electrical conduction through the heart, which can help manage dysrhythmias.
D) "Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.": While calcium channel blockers can improve blood flow and reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart workload, their primary action does not directly focus on increasing oxygen delivery to systemic circulation. Their primary role is in managing heart contractility and rhythm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Losartan (Cozaar): This medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and is often used as an alternative for patients who experience a cough due to ACE inhibitors. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a cough because they do not affect bradykinin levels, making losartan an appropriate choice for managing hypertension without the adverse effect of a persistent cough.
B) Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline): While hydralazine is an antihypertensive, it works through a different mechanism (direct vasodilation) and is not a first-line alternative for patients with a history of ACE inhibitor-induced cough. It's generally used in specific situations, such as severe hypertension or heart failure.
C) Furosemide (Lasix): This is a loop diuretic primarily used for conditions like heart failure or edema, rather than for the management of hypertension alone. It does not address the underlying hypertension in the same manner as ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
D) Metoprolol (Lopressor): This is a beta-blocker that can be used for hypertension, but it does not directly address the issue of cough related to ACE inhibitors. Switching to a beta-blocker may not be the best option if the client is specifically seeking to avoid the cough associated with ACE inhibitors.