A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth.
The client has saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Assess the client's blood pressure.
Assess the bladder for distention.
Massage the client's fundus.
Prepare to administer a prescription.
Prepare to administer a prescription.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uteroplacental insufficiency leads to late decelerations, which are characterized by a gradual decrease in fetal heart rate after the peak of a contraction. This indicates compromised blood flow between the uterus and placenta, affecting the fetus.
Choice B rationale
Umbilical cord compression usually causes variable decelerations, not late decelerations.
Choice C rationale
Maternal bradycardia does not cause changes in fetal heart rate patterns like late decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Fetal head compression causes early decelerations, which coincide with contractions, not late decelerations.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.