A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth.
The client has saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Assess the client's blood pressure.
Assess the bladder for distention.
Massage the client's fundus.
Prepare to administer a prescription.
Prepare to administer a prescription.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Severe nausea and vomiting, known as hyperemesis gravidarum, are more commonly associated with high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and are not specific to
ectopic pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
While vaginal bleeding can occur in an ectopic pregnancy, it is usually not a large amount. The bleeding in ectopic pregnancy tends to be light and irregular.
Choice C rationale
Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age is typically associated with conditions like molar pregnancy, not ectopic pregnancy, as the pregnancy is located outside
the uterus.
Choice D rationale
Unilateral, cramp-like abdominal pain is a classic symptom of ectopic pregnancy as the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in a fallopian tube, causing
localized pain.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing
fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the
overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics
and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential
complications.