A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth.
The client has saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Assess the client's blood pressure.
Assess the bladder for distention.
Massage the client's fundus.
Prepare to administer a prescription.
Prepare to administer a prescription.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A: Give betamethasone 12 mg IM now and repeat in 24 hr.
Rationale: Betamethasone is administered to accelerate fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. Given the client's gestational age of 31 weeks, this intervention is appropriate to help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn.
Choice B: Begin loading dose of magnesium sulfate 9 g over 30 min.
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used for neuroprotection of the fetus in preterm labor to reduce the risk of cerebral palsy. The loading dose is typically given to achieve therapeutic levels quickly.
Choice C: Position the client in a lateral position.
Rationale: Positioning the client in a lateral position helps improve uteroplacental blood flow and can reduce the intensity of contractions, which is beneficial in managing preterm labor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (also known as amniotic fluid embolism) occurs when amniotic fluid, fetal cells, hair, or other debris enter the mother's bloodstream, triggering
a serious reaction. It can cause sudden shortness of breath, cardiovascular collapse, and other severe symptoms immediately after a rupture of membranes and is a rare but critical
obstetrical emergency.
Choice B rationale
Abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which leads to bleeding and potential fetal and maternal distress. However, it does not
typically present with sudden cardiorespiratory collapse or shortness of breath immediately following membrane rupture.
Choice C rationale
Uterine rupture refers to a tear in the wall of the uterus, usually due to trauma, labor stress, or previous surgical scars. While it is a severe condition, it usually presents with
abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress rather than sudden respiratory failure.
Choice D rationale
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition affecting blood clotting processes, often secondary to other conditions like severe preeclampsia, sepsis, or trauma. It
generally presents with bleeding and clotting issues but not sudden respiratory or cardiovascular collapse.