A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and nephropathy due to type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications to slow the progression of the nephropathy?
Sitagliptin.
Glipizide.
Metoprolol.
Losartan.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to manage blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes but does not specifically slow the progression of nephropathy.
Choice B rationale
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that helps control blood sugar levels but does not have a direct effect on slowing nephropathy progression.
Choice C rationale
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension but does not specifically target nephropathy progression.
Choice D rationale
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that helps manage hypertension and has been shown to slow the progression of nephropathy in patients with type 2 diabetes.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.
Choice B rationale
Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
CBC results are not directly related to the initiation of alendronate therapy.
Choice B rationale
Family history of colon cancer is not relevant to alendronate therapy.
Choice C rationale
Thyroid function is not directly related to alendronate therapy.
Choice D rationale
Pregnancy status should be assessed as alendronate is contraindicated during pregnancy.