Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and nephropathy due to type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications to slow the progression of the nephropathy?

A.

Sitagliptin.

B.

Glipizide.

C.

Metoprolol.

D.

Losartan.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

 

Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to manage blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes but does not specifically slow the progression of nephropathy.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that helps control blood sugar levels but does not have a direct effect on slowing nephropathy progression.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension but does not specifically target nephropathy progression.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that helps manage hypertension and has been shown to slow the progression of nephropathy in patients with type 2 diabetes.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

BNP is used to diagnose heart failure, not to monitor gentamicin’s adverse effects.

Choice B rationale

Creatinine levels should be monitored as gentamicin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function.

Choice C rationale

Amylase levels are not relevant for detecting gentamicin’s adverse effects.

Choice D rationale

ESR is used to detect inflammation, not specific to gentamicin’s adverse effects.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.

Choice B rationale

Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.

Choice C rationale

Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.

Choice D rationale

Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.