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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?

A.

Phenytoin.

B.

Calcitonin.

C.

Buspirone.

D.

Fludrocortisone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

 

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to control seizures and is not indicated for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency.

 

Choice B rationale

 

Calcitonin is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and hypercalcemia, not adrenal insufficiency.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat anxiety disorders and is not used for adrenal insufficiency.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Fludrocortisone is a synthetic corticosteroid that is used to replace aldosterone in patients with adrenal insufficiency. It helps maintain sodium balance and blood pressure.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.

Choice B rationale

Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.

Choice C rationale

Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.

Choice D rationale

Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A white coating in the mouth can indicate oral thrush, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids like beclomethasone. This requires prompt treatment to prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale

Nausea is a less common side effect of beclomethasone and is not as urgent as oral thrush.

Choice C rationale

Myalgia (muscle pain) is a less common side effect and not as critical as oral thrush.

Choice D rationale

Headache is a common side effect but not as urgent as oral thrush.

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