. A nurse is caring for a client who develops a fat embolism after sustaining multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Initiate intravenous fluid therapy
Prepare the client for emergency surgery
Administer high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Initiate intravenous fluid therapy. While fluid therapy is essential to support circulation and reduce the risk of shock, oxygenation takes priority in fat embolism management.
B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for fat embolism; management focuses on supportive care, particularly respiratory support.
C. Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. High-flow oxygen is the first priority to address hypoxia caused by fat embolism and should be administered immediately to maintain adequate oxygenation.
D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs). SCDs are used to prevent venous thromboembolism, but they do not help with the treatment of fat embolism.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client states that they consume a high calcium diet and have had high calcium in their blood. A high calcium diet or hypercalcemia is more associated with kidney stones, not typically with pyelonephritis.
B. The client reports that they had two urinary tract infections (UTI) in the past months. Recurrent UTIs are a risk factor for pyelonephritis, as untreated or recurrent infections can ascend from the bladder to the kidneys, leading to this condition.
C. The client states that they remember their mother saying their grandma had this same genetic disease. Pyelonephritis is not typically a genetic disease but rather an infection of the kidneys, often secondary to urinary tract infections.
D. The client reports that they took a lot of ibuprofen for arthritis for many years. Long-term NSAID use can impact kidney function but does not directly cause pyelonephritis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance. Parkinson’s disease is not caused by inflammation in the motor cortex; it primarily involves the loss of dopamine-producing neurons.
B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
C. A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline. While a loss of acetylcholine is associated with Alzheimer’s disease, it is not the primary issue in Parkinson’s disease.
D. Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity. In Parkinson’s disease, there is a decrease, not an excess, in dopamine production, which contributes to motor symptoms.