A nurse is assisting with the care of a postoperative client following a total knee replacement. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe to prevent the formulation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Warfarin
Alteplase (PA)
Clopidogrel
Enoxaparin
The Correct Answer is D
A. Warfarin. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, but it typically requires several days to achieve a therapeutic effect and needs close monitoring of INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels. While it can be used for long-term prevention of DVT, it's not the immediate choice for post-operative prophylaxis.
B. Alteplase (tPA). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent, used to break down existing clots, not prevent their formation. It is typically used in emergency situations, such as for treating ischemic stroke.
C. Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent, often used to prevent arterial clots, not DVTs. It is more commonly used in conditions like stroke and heart disease.
D. Enoxaparin. Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, is commonly used to prevent DVT after surgery by inhibiting specific clotting factors. It’s frequently prescribed for DVT prevention in orthopedic surgery patients.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD). PAD is a chronic condition related to reduced blood flow in peripheral arteries. It is not directly associated with MI complications.
B. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). GERD involves acid reflux and is not related to post-MI complications.
C. Hypertension. While hypertension is a risk factor for MI, it does not directly explain the symptoms of shortness of breath and irregular heartbeats following an MI.
D. Heart Failure. Heart failure is a common post-MI complication, especially if a significant portion of heart muscle is damaged. Symptoms of shortness of breath and irregular heartbeats could indicate left-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the lungs, or right-sided failure, which can lead to systemic congestion.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.