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A nurse is assisting with the care of a postoperative client following a total knee replacement. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe to prevent the formulation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A.

Warfarin

B.

Alteplase (PA)

C.

Clopidogrel

D.

Enoxaparin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Warfarin. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, but it typically requires several days to achieve a therapeutic effect and needs close monitoring of INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels. While it can be used for long-term prevention of DVT, it's not the immediate choice for post-operative prophylaxis.

 

B. Alteplase (tPA). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent, used to break down existing clots, not prevent their formation. It is typically used in emergency situations, such as for treating ischemic stroke.

 

C. Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent, often used to prevent arterial clots, not DVTs. It is more commonly used in conditions like stroke and heart disease.

 

D. Enoxaparin. Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, is commonly used to prevent DVT after surgery by inhibiting specific clotting factors. It’s frequently prescribed for DVT prevention in orthopedic surgery patients.


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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.

B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.

C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.

D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Pain in the neck when the patient flexes their head towards the chest. This describes nuchal rigidity, not Kernig sign.

B. Involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed. This describes Brudzinski sign, not Kernig sign.

C. Photophobia and headache triggered by bright light. These are symptoms of meningitis, but they are not specific to Kernig sign.

D. Pain and resistance when attempting to extend the patient's leg from a flexed position. A positive Kernig sign is when there is pain and resistance to leg extension from a flexed hip and knee position, indicating meningeal irritation.

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