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A nurse is assessing a client's peripheral circulation. In which of the following locations should the nurse palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse? (Selectable areas, or "Hot Spots," are outlined in the artwork below. Select only the outlined area that corresponds to your answer.)

Iliac

Femoral

Popliteal

Tibial

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. The iliac pulse is located near the pelvis and is not used for assessing circulation in the lower extremities.

B. The femoral pulse is located in the upper thigh, not near the posterior tibial area.

C. The popliteal pulse is found at the back of the knee and is higher than the posterior tibial location.

D. The posterior tibial pulse is correctly located behind the medial malleolus on the inner side of the ankle. This location is where the posterior tibial artery is accessible and is commonly used to assess blood flow to the lower extremities.

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A. Obesity B. Race C. History of smoking D. History of hypertension

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Obesity is a modifiable risk factor, as it can be addressed through lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise.

B. Race is a nonmodifiable risk factor; certain races may have a higher risk of stroke due to genetic and environmental factors.

C. History of smoking is a modifiable risk factor because individuals can choose to quit smoking to reduce their risk of stroke.

D. History of hypertension is also a modifiable risk factor; while having high blood pressure increases the risk of stroke, it can be managed with lifestyle changes and medications.

A. Severe pitting, very swollen leg and indentation that lasts for a long time, 8 mm deep B. Slight indentation, with no perceptible swelling of the leg. 2 mm deep C. Moderate pitting, with indentation that subsides rapidly, 4 mm deep D. Deep pitting, swollen leg, and indentation that remains for a short time, 6 mm deep

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. +4 pitting edema is characterized by severe pitting that creates a deep indentation (greater than 8 mm) that remains for a prolonged period. This description matches the findings in option

B. This describes +1 pitting edema, which is not consistent with +4 edema.

C. This option describes +2 or +3 pitting edema, as the indentation subsides rapidly, which does not align with +4.

D. Although this describes deep pitting, the depth is less than 8 mm, which is not consistent with +4 edema.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is teaching about the risk factors of developing a stroke with a group of older adult clients. Which nonmodifiable risk factors should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who presents with severe edema in the lower extremities. The nurse would document the presence of +4 pitting edema after noting which finding?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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