Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 weeks postoperative following a kidney transplant. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as possible organ rejection?

A.

Temperature 36.1°C (97.0° F)

B.

Weight loss

C.

Insomnia

D.

Oliguria

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale:

 

A. A low temperature is not indicative of organ rejection; fever would be more concerning.

 

B. Weight loss is not a typical sign of acute organ rejection; weight gain due to fluid retention might be observed.

 

C. Insomnia is not specifically associated with organ rejection.

 

D. Oliguria (decreased urine output) is a significant sign of possible kidney transplant rejection, as it may indicate impaired kidney function.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. A low sodium diet is not appropriate for a client with SIADH and hyponatremia, as it can exacerbate the low sodium levels. Increasing sodium intake might be more appropriate depending on the clinical situation.

B. Restricting fluid intake is a standard treatment for SIADH to prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, which is critical in managing hyponatremia.

C. Desmopressin acetate is used to treat conditions with insufficient antidiuretic hormone, such as diabetes insipidus, and is not appropriate for SIADH.

D. An IV of 0.45% sodium chloride is hypotonic and could worsen hyponatremia in SIADH. Hypertonic saline would be more appropriate if IV treatment were necessary

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Assisting the client to the bathroom might be helpful, but it is not the first action the nurse should take since the client hasn't voided for an extended period.

B. Increasing fluids may be beneficial but does not address the immediate concern of whether there is a problem with urinary retention.

C. Performing a bladder scan is the first action to determine if there is urine retention in the bladder. This information is crucial before deciding on further interventions, such as catheterization.

D. Inserting a straight catheter may be necessary if significant urinary retention is confirmed, but it should not be the first action without knowing the bladder's status.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.