A nurse is administering furosemide 80 mg PO twice daily to a client who has pulmonary edema. Which of the following assessment findings indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Elevation in blood pressure
Respiratory rate of 24/min
Adventitious breath sounds
Weight loss of 1.8 kg (4 lb) in the past 24 hr
The Correct Answer is D
A) Elevation in blood pressure: An elevation in blood pressure is not an indicator of the effectiveness of furosemide. In fact, effective diuresis would typically lead to a reduction in blood pressure, especially in cases of pulmonary edema related to heart failure.
B) Respiratory rate of 24/min: A respiratory rate of 24/min indicates tachypnea, which is often associated with respiratory distress or ongoing pulmonary congestion. This finding does not suggest that the furosemide is effective; instead, it may indicate that further intervention is needed.
C) Adventitious breath sounds: The presence of adventitious breath sounds, such as wheezing or crackles, suggests ongoing fluid accumulation in the lungs and is not an indicator of effective diuresis. Effective treatment should lead to clearer breath sounds as fluid is removed.
D) Weight loss of 1.8 kg (4 lb) in the past 24 hr: This finding is a strong indicator of the effectiveness of furosemide. A significant weight loss, especially in a client with pulmonary edema, reflects a reduction in fluid overload. Since furosemide works by promoting diuresis, this weight loss suggests that the medication is effectively reducing excess fluid in the body.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Administer aspirin: While administering aspirin is important in the management of acute angina to inhibit platelet aggregation, it is not the immediate priority. Aspirin helps prevent further clot formation but does not relieve the acute symptoms of angina.
B) Initiate IV access: Establishing IV access may be necessary for medication administration, but it should not be the first action taken when a client is experiencing acute angina. Immediate relief of chest pain is the priority.
C) Administer nitroglycerin: This is the first action the nurse should take. Nitroglycerin acts quickly to relieve angina by dilating coronary arteries, thus improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Relief of pain and ischemia is the immediate priority.
D) Measure blood pressure: While monitoring vital signs is crucial, especially in a client with cardiac issues, the most urgent intervention in the context of acute angina is pain relief. Blood pressure may be assessed after administering nitroglycerin since it can affect hemodynamics.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Negative sputum cultures for acid-fast bacillus: This is the primary indicator that a client with pulmonary tuberculosis is no longer infectious. Once the sputum cultures are negative for acid-fast bacilli on two consecutive tests, the client is considered to have a reduced risk of transmitting the infection to others.
B) Mantoux skin test revealing an induration of less than 1 mm: A negative Mantoux test (induration of less than 5 mm) indicates that the person has not been exposed to TB or does not have an active infection. However, this test is not used to determine infectiousness and may not be relevant for someone already diagnosed with TB.
C) Client no longer coughing up blood-tinged sputum: While the absence of blood-tinged sputum may indicate improvement, it does not necessarily mean the client is no longer infectious. Infectiousness is more accurately assessed through sputum cultures.
D) Positive Quantiferon-TB Gold test (negative): The Quantiferon-TB Gold test is a blood test that can indicate TB infection but does not determine whether the client is infectious. A positive result can occur even when a client is being effectively treated for tuberculosis.