A nurse has just received change-of-shift report about four clients who are postpartum.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
A client whose labor lasted for 6 hours.
A client who received magnesium sulfate during labor.
A client who has a history of oligohydramnios.
A client whose newborn is having difficulty latching-on.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A client whose labor lasted for 6 hours is not necessarily a priority unless other complications are present. Duration of labor alone does not indicate an urgent need for immediate attention postpartum.
Choice B rationale
A client who received magnesium sulfate during labor should be seen first due to the potential for serious side effects such as respiratory depression, hypotonia in the newborn, and maternal complications. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia and requires close monitoring.
Choice C rationale
A client with a history of oligohydramnios needs monitoring, but this condition alone does not take precedence over the immediate postpartum risks associated with magnesium sulfate.
Choice D rationale
A client whose newborn is having difficulty latching-on needs support and assistance with breastfeeding. While important, this issue is not as urgent as monitoring the effects of magnesium sulfate in the client described in Choice B.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fundus located to the right of the umbilicus requires intervention. This can indicate a full bladder, which can inhibit uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 37.8° C (100° F) is a common finding postpartum and usually does not require intervention unless it is accompanied by other signs of infection.
Choice C rationale
Deep tendon reflexes 2+ is a normal finding and does not require intervention. It indicates normal neuromuscular function.
Choice D rationale
A moderate amount of lochia rubra is expected postpartum and does not require intervention unless it is excessive or associated with other abnormal symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a contraindication for diaphragm use due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events with estrogen-based contraceptives.
Choice B rationale
Tobacco use, although a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a direct contraindication for diaphragm use, which is a non-hormonal contraceptive method.
Choice C rationale
Recurrent urinary tract infections are a contraindication for diaphragm use due to the risk of infection exacerbation from device insertion.
Choice D rationale
History of positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic is not a contraindication for diaphragm use; it typically relates to pregnancy and neonatal infection risk.