A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) fell while walking to the bathroom. Upon transfer to the intensive care unit, the client is confused and has had projectile vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Determine neurological baseline prior to the fall.
Determine client’s last dose of corticosteroids.
Administer a PRN IV antiemetic as prescribed.
Complete head to toe neurological assessment.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Determining the neurological baseline prior to the fall is important but not the immediate priority. The client’s current confusion and projectile vomiting suggest a potential acute condition that needs immediate assessment.
Choice B rationale
Determining the client’s last dose of corticosteroids is relevant for managing multiple sclerosis but does not address the immediate concern of confusion and vomiting.
Choice C rationale
Administering a PRN IV antiemetic as prescribed can help manage vomiting but does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Completing a head-to-toe neurological assessment is the priority intervention. The client’s confusion and projectile vomiting could indicate increased intracranial pressure or another acute neurological condition that requires immediate attention.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Palpating large joints for nodules is not the most effective technique for assessing early signs of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Nodules typically appear in more advanced stages of RA and are not an early sign.
Choice B rationale
Observing the skin for lesions is not specific to RA. While skin lesions can be associated with other conditions, they are not a primary indicator of early RA1.
Choice C rationale
Observing the client’s fingers is crucial for detecting early signs of RA. Early RA often presents with swelling, tenderness, and stiffness in the small joints of the fingers.
Choice D rationale
Palpating the lymph nodes is not relevant for early RA assessment. Lymph node enlargement is not a typical early sign of RA1.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Corneal abrasion is a contraindication for the use of ophthalmic ketorolac. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can delay healing and increase the risk of further damage to the cornea.
Choice B rationale
Chemical burns are not a primary contraindication for ophthalmic ketorolac. However, the treatment of chemical burns typically involves other specific interventions, and the use of ketorolac should be carefully considered.
Choice C rationale
Radiation exposure is not a direct contraindication for the use of ophthalmic ketorolac. The medication is used to reduce inflammation and pain, which may be beneficial in managing symptoms related to radiation exposure.
Choice D rationale
A foreign body in the eye is not a primary contraindication for ophthalmic ketorolac. However, the foreign body should be removed, and the eye should be thoroughly examined before administering any medication.