A client who is 32 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes calls the provider’s office to report decreased fetal movement over the last several hours. The provider advises her to report to OB triage for further testing.
What test should you anticipate the provider will order?
Non-stress test.
Contraction stress test.
Biophysical profile.
Ultrasound.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A non-stress test (NST) is a common test used to evaluate fetal well-being, especially in cases of decreased fetal movement. It measures the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. A reactive NST, where the fetal heart rate increases with movement, indicates good oxygenation and neurological function.
Choice B rationale
A contraction stress test (CST) evaluates the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions, which can be induced by oxytocin or nipple stimulation. It is typically used to assess placental function and fetal tolerance to labor, not for initial assessment of decreased fetal movement.
Choice C rationale
A biophysical profile (BPP) combines an NST with ultrasound to assess fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. While comprehensive, it is more time-consuming and usually reserved for further evaluation if the NST is non-reactive.
Choice D rationale
An ultrasound can assess fetal growth, amniotic fluid volume, and anatomical structures. However, it does not provide real-time information on fetal heart rate reactivity, making it less suitable for immediate assessment of decreased fetal movement.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the uterus, thereby reducing uterine contractions. It is commonly used in cases of tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations to decrease uterine activity and improve fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline’s mechanism of action involves stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in cyclic AMP and subsequent relaxation of uterine smooth muscle.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is typically used to induce or augment labor. Administering oxytocin in a situation where there is already tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations would exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, potentially leading to further fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to ripen the cervix and induce labor. Similar to oxytocin, it would not be appropriate in this scenario as it would increase uterine contractions, worsening the tachysystole and late decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used as a tocolytic to prevent preterm labor and as a neuroprotective agent for the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. While it has some uterine relaxation properties, it is not the first-line treatment for reducing uterine activity in the context of tachysystole and late decelerations.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A pulse of 88 bpm is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate any immediate concern that needs to be reported to the anesthesia provider.
Choice B rationale
A pain level of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates that the epidural is effectively managing the client’s pain. This is a positive outcome and does not require reporting.
Choice C rationale
Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a common and potentially serious side effect of epidural anesthesia. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress, so it requires immediate attention and reporting to the anesthesia provider.
Choice D rationale
Dizziness can be a side effect of epidural anesthesia, but it is not as critical as hypotension. It should be monitored, but it does not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or accompanied by other symptoms.