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A client who is 32 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes calls the provider’s office to report decreased fetal movement over the last several hours. The provider advises her to report to OB triage for further testing.

 

What test should you anticipate the provider will order?

A.

Non-stress test.

B.

Contraction stress test.

C.

Biophysical profile.

D.

Ultrasound.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

A non-stress test (NST) is a common test used to evaluate fetal well-being, especially in cases of decreased fetal movement. It measures the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. A reactive NST, where the fetal heart rate increases with movement, indicates good oxygenation and neurological function.

 

Choice B rationale

 

A contraction stress test (CST) evaluates the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions, which can be induced by oxytocin or nipple stimulation. It is typically used to assess placental function and fetal tolerance to labor, not for initial assessment of decreased fetal movement.

 

Choice C rationale

 

A biophysical profile (BPP) combines an NST with ultrasound to assess fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. While comprehensive, it is more time-consuming and usually reserved for further evaluation if the NST is non-reactive.

 

Choice D rationale

 

An ultrasound can assess fetal growth, amniotic fluid volume, and anatomical structures. However, it does not provide real-time information on fetal heart rate reactivity, making it less suitable for immediate assessment of decreased fetal movement.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A reactive non-stress test (NST) indicates that the fetal heart rate increases appropriately with fetal movements, suggesting good fetal oxygenation and neurological function. This is the desired outcome for an NST4.

Choice B rationale

A non-reactive NST means the fetal heart rate did not increase with movements, which could indicate fetal hypoxia or other issues. Further testing would be needed to assess fetal well-being.

Choice C rationale

An inconclusive NST means the test did not provide enough information to determine fetal well-being, possibly due to fetal sleep cycles or maternal factors. Additional testing would be required.

Choice D rationale

A positive NST is not a standard term used in fetal monitoring. The correct terms are reactive or non-reactive.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the uterus, thereby reducing uterine contractions. It is commonly used in cases of tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations to decrease uterine activity and improve fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline’s mechanism of action involves stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in cyclic AMP and subsequent relaxation of uterine smooth muscle.

Choice B rationale

Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is typically used to induce or augment labor. Administering oxytocin in a situation where there is already tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations would exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, potentially leading to further fetal distress.

Choice C rationale

Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to ripen the cervix and induce labor. Similar to oxytocin, it would not be appropriate in this scenario as it would increase uterine contractions, worsening the tachysystole and late decelerations.

Choice D rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used as a tocolytic to prevent preterm labor and as a neuroprotective agent for the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. While it has some uterine relaxation properties, it is not the first-line treatment for reducing uterine activity in the context of tachysystole and late decelerations.

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