A client presents to the healthcare setting and ordered verapamil to treat his hypertension. Which assessment finding by the nurse would determine if the medication should be held?
Pulse oximetry of 92%
Pulse of 78
Respiratory rate of 12
History of a myocardial infarction a week ago
The Correct Answer is D
A) Pulse oximetry of 92%: While a pulse oximetry reading of 92% is slightly below normal, it is not a definitive reason to hold verapamil. This reading indicates mild hypoxemia, but it does not directly contraindicate the use of verapamil. Other factors should be considered before making a decision based solely on this value.
B) Pulse of 78: A pulse rate of 78 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults and does not warrant holding verapamil. This finding alone does not indicate any immediate concerns related to the administration of the medication.
C) Respiratory rate of 12: A respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute is within the normal range for adults. This finding does not provide any indication that verapamil should be withheld. It is important to consider other clinical factors when assessing the appropriateness of medication administration.
D) History of myocardial infarction a week ago: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can have significant effects on cardiac function. Administering it to a client who recently experienced a myocardial infarction (heart attack) could exacerbate cardiac issues and lead to complications. Therefore, it is crucial to hold the medication and consult with the healthcare provider before proceeding.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Beta Blockers: While beta blockers can be used to manage some side effects of various medications, they are not typically indicated for managing niacin-induced flushing. Their primary use is in cardiovascular conditions rather than specifically addressing flushing.
B) Calcium Channel Blockers: Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions. They do not specifically address the flushing associated with niacin and would not be the expected choice for this side effect.
C) NSAIDs: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective in managing niacin-induced flushing. Administering an NSAID, such as ibuprofen, prior to taking niacin can help reduce the flushing response by inhibiting the prostaglandins that contribute to this side effect.
D) Fibric Acid Derivatives: These medications, such as gemfibrozil, are used to lower triglycerides and cholesterol levels, but they do not address the flushing side effect caused by niacin. Their mechanism of action is different and not focused on alleviating flushing symptoms.