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A client arrives at OB triage with complaints of decreased fetal movement for the past 24 hours.
The client states, "I see the high-risk clinic because I have chronic hypertension and gestational diabetes.”. The nurse applies the external fetal monitors and identifies a fetal heart rate baseline of 120 bpm, absent variability, no accelerations, and recurrent late decelerations.

What fetal heart rate category would the nurse communicate to the provider?

A.

Category 1.

B.

Category 2.

C.

Category 3.

D.

Category 4. .

E.

Category 4. .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Category 1 is a normal fetal heart rate pattern with no signs of fetal distress, which is not applicable in this case.

 

Choice B rationale

Category 2 represents an intermediate category with some concerns, but recurrent late decelerations and absent variability place this scenario in a higher risk category.

 

Choice C rationale

Category 3 indicates abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, including absent variability with recurrent late decelerations, which is associated with potential fetal hypoxia or acidemia and requires prompt intervention.

 

Choice D rationale

There is no Category 4 in fetal heart rate monitoring.

 


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The placenta does not provide thermoregulation; that function is managed by maternal thermoregulation and the amniotic fluid which insulates the fetus.

Choice B rationale

Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus from maternal movements, not the placenta. The placenta's role is more focused on nutrient and waste exchange.

Choice C rationale

The placenta facilitates metabolic functions and gas exchange, supplying oxygen and nutrients to the fetus while removing carbon dioxide and waste products, ensuring fetal development.

Choice D rationale

The placenta doesn't provide a sterile environment. This is accomplished by the amniotic sac and amniotic fluid. The placenta connects the fetus to maternal blood supply, ensuring necessary exchanges for fetal growth.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist

longer and requires treatment.

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and

persistent symptoms.

Choice C rationale

Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe

functional impairment.

Choice D rationale

Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through

support and reassurance.

Choice E rationale

Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.

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