A client arrives at OB triage with complaints of decreased fetal movement for the past 24 hours.
The client states, "I see the high-risk clinic because I have chronic hypertension and gestational diabetes.”. The nurse applies the external fetal monitors and identifies a fetal heart rate baseline of 120 bpm, absent variability, no accelerations, and recurrent late decelerations.
What fetal heart rate category would the nurse communicate to the provider?
Category 1.
Category 2.
Category 3.
Category 4. .
Category 4. .
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Category 1 is a normal fetal heart rate pattern with no signs of fetal distress, which is not applicable in this case.
Choice B rationale
Category 2 represents an intermediate category with some concerns, but recurrent late decelerations and absent variability place this scenario in a higher risk category.
Choice C rationale
Category 3 indicates abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, including absent variability with recurrent late decelerations, which is associated with potential fetal hypoxia or acidemia and requires prompt intervention.
Choice D rationale
There is no Category 4 in fetal heart rate monitoring.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acknowledging the client’s feelings provides emotional support and validates her experience. This response opens the door for further discussion and support, which is crucial for emotional well-being.
Choice B rationale
Suggesting future possibilities does not address the client's current emotional state. It may come across as dismissive of her feelings and does not offer the immediate support she needs.
Choice C rationale
While emphasizing the health of the baby is positive, it can also be perceived as dismissive of the client's feelings and her disappointment about the birth experience.
Choice D rationale
Mentioning the resumption of sexual relations shifts the focus away from her emotional needs and can be inappropriate or insensitive in this context, failing to address her disappointment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage
heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to
addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through
fundal massage.