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A client arrives at OB triage with complaints of decreased fetal movement for the past 24 hours.
The client states, "I see the high-risk clinic because I have chronic hypertension and gestational diabetes.”. The nurse applies the external fetal monitors and identifies a fetal heart rate baseline of 120 bpm, absent variability, no accelerations, and recurrent late decelerations.

What fetal heart rate category would the nurse communicate to the provider?

A.

Category 1.

B.

Category 2.

C.

Category 3.

D.

Category 4. .

E.

Category 4. .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Category 1 is a normal fetal heart rate pattern with no signs of fetal distress, which is not applicable in this case.

 

Choice B rationale

Category 2 represents an intermediate category with some concerns, but recurrent late decelerations and absent variability place this scenario in a higher risk category.

 

Choice C rationale

Category 3 indicates abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, including absent variability with recurrent late decelerations, which is associated with potential fetal hypoxia or acidemia and requires prompt intervention.

 

Choice D rationale

There is no Category 4 in fetal heart rate monitoring.

 


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A rapid pulse is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity more commonly affects the nervous and muscular systems.

Choice B rationale

Tingling in toes can be a sign of early magnesium sulfate effects but not necessarily toxicity. It may indicate that the medication is starting to affect the nervous system.

Choice C rationale

Cool skin temperature is not a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Symptoms of magnesium toxicity are more related to neuromuscular and respiratory function.

Choice D rationale

Absent deep tendon reflexes are a key indicator of magnesium toxicity. This finding suggests that magnesium levels are high enough to depress neuromuscular function, requiring immediate medical intervention. .

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Decreased deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with preeclampsia. In fact, hyperreflexia or increased deep tendon reflexes might be observed due to central nervous

system irritability in preeclampsia.

Choice B rationale

Uterine contractions are related to labor and not a specific indicator of preeclampsia. While they might occur simultaneously, they are not diagnostic of preeclampsia.

Choice C rationale

Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. It indicates kidney involvement and is used along with elevated blood pressure to diagnose this condition.

Choice D rationale

Increased blood glucose levels are associated with gestational diabetes rather than preeclampsia. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria are the hallmarks of preeclampsia.

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