. A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden numbness and weakness in the face, arm, and leg on one side of the body difficulty speaking, and severe headache with no known cause. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Stroke
Migraine
Hypoglycemia
Transient ischemic Attack (TIA)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer high-calorie diet to prevent weight loss. While adequate nutrition is important, a high-calorie diet is not the primary priority in managing heart failure. Sodium and fluid management are usually more crucial to control fluid overload.
B. Reduce sodium intake to help manage fluid retention. Reducing sodium intake is a priority in heart failure management as it helps prevent fluid retention, which reduces workload on the heart and decreases symptoms of fluid overload.
C. Encourage complete bed rest to reduce cardiac workload. Complete bed rest is not recommended as it can lead to deconditioning and increased risk of blood clots. Activity should be balanced according to the patient’s tolerance.
D. Increase fluid intake to maintain hydration. In heart failure, increasing fluid intake could worsen fluid overload. Fluid restriction may be necessary to prevent excess fluid retention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Frequent urination. Frequent urination is not typically associated with Crohn’s disease, which primarily affects the gastrointestinal system.
B. Jaundice. Jaundice is related to liver or biliary system issues and is not a common symptom of Crohn’s disease.
C. Joint pain. While Crohn’s disease may be associated with extraintestinal symptoms, joint pain is not as common as gastrointestinal symptoms during an exacerbation.
D. Abdominal pain and cramping. Abdominal pain and cramping are common symptoms of Crohn’s disease, especially during flare-ups, due to inflammation in the digestive tract.