. A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden numbness and weakness in the face, arm, and leg on one side of the body difficulty speaking, and severe headache with no known cause. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Stroke
Migraine
Hypoglycemia
Transient ischemic Attack (TIA)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.
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Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
A. A clean catch urinalysis and urine culture: A urinalysis and culture are essential to identify the presence of infection, type of bacteria, and appropriate antibiotic sensitivity.
B. Foley catheter placement: Foley catheters are not routinely indicated for suspected urinary tract infections (UTIs) unless there is an issue with urinary retention or other specific medical indication.
C. Broad-spectrum antibiotic: Initiating a broad-spectrum antibiotic may be appropriate while waiting for culture results to address infection.
D. 0.9% sodium chloride infusion at 100 ml/hr: IV fluids are not typically necessary for a UTI unless the patient is dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids.
E. WBC count: A WBC count can help assess the systemic inflammatory response and gauge the severity of the infection.
F. Blood cultures × 2: Blood cultures are generally reserved for cases where a systemic infection or sepsis is suspected, which is not indicated by this patient's symptoms alone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Serum sodium levels: Desmopressin can lead to water retention and potentially hyponatremia. Monitoring serum sodium is crucial to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
B. Serum magnesium levels: Magnesium is not typically impacted by desmopressin treatment in central diabetes insipidus.
C. Serum potassium levels: Desmopressin does not generally affect potassium levels in patients with diabetes insipidus.
D. Serum calcium levels: Calcium levels are not directly influenced by desmopressin or diabetes insipidus.