. A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden numbness and weakness in the face, arm, and leg on one side of the body difficulty speaking, and severe headache with no known cause. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Stroke
Migraine
Hypoglycemia
Transient ischemic Attack (TIA)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client states that they consume a high calcium diet and have had high calcium in their blood. A high calcium diet or hypercalcemia is more associated with kidney stones, not typically with pyelonephritis.
B. The client reports that they had two urinary tract infections (UTI) in the past months. Recurrent UTIs are a risk factor for pyelonephritis, as untreated or recurrent infections can ascend from the bladder to the kidneys, leading to this condition.
C. The client states that they remember their mother saying their grandma had this same genetic disease. Pyelonephritis is not typically a genetic disease but rather an infection of the kidneys, often secondary to urinary tract infections.
D. The client reports that they took a lot of ibuprofen for arthritis for many years. Long-term NSAID use can impact kidney function but does not directly cause pyelonephritis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis generally presents with redness and discharge but does not cause elevated intraocular pressure, severe pain, or visual disturbances like halos.
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, nausea, and vomiting, along with elevated intraocular pressure and a cloudy cornea.
C. Retinal detachment. Retinal detachment may cause sudden vision loss or flashing lights but typically lacks pain, nausea, or vomiting, and does not affect intraocular pressure.
D. Migraine with aura. A migraine with aura may cause visual disturbances but does not present with eye pain, red eye, or elevated intraocular pressure.