. A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden numbness and weakness in the face, arm, and leg on one side of the body difficulty speaking, and severe headache with no known cause. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Stroke
Migraine
Hypoglycemia
Transient ischemic Attack (TIA)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.
B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.
C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.
D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Elevated blood pressure. Blood pressure typically drops in hypovolemic shock as blood volume decreases.
B. Warm, flushed skin. As hypovolemic shock progresses, skin becomes cool and clammy due to decreased blood flow and compensatory vasoconstriction.
C. Increased urine output. Hypovolemic shock leads to decreased urine output due to reduced renal perfusion.
D. Increased heart rate. An increased heart rate is an early compensatory response in hypovolemic shock as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output.