. A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden numbness and weakness in the face, arm, and leg on one side of the body difficulty speaking, and severe headache with no known cause. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Stroke
Migraine
Hypoglycemia
Transient ischemic Attack (TIA)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Ciprofloxacin, Metronidazole, and Ranitidine: Ciprofloxacin and ranitidine are not recommended for H. pylori treatment. Ciprofloxacin is not typically used, and ranitidine is an H2 blocker, not a proton pump inhibitor.
B. Amoxicillin, Clarithromycin, and Omeprazole: This combination is a standard triple therapy for H. pylori infection. Amoxicillin and clarithromycin are antibiotics, and omeprazole (a proton pump inhibitor) reduces stomach acid to help eradicate the bacteria.
C. Metronidazole, Tetracycline, and Bismuth subsalicylate: This combination is part of quadruple therapy rather than triple therapy. Quadruple therapy is usually reserved for cases resistant to initial treatment.
D. Erythromycin, Amoxicillin, and Famotidine: Erythromycin is not part of standard triple therapy, and famotidine is an H2 blocker, not a proton pump inhibitor.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Ensure that the client's urine output is at least 1 ml/kg/hr. Adequate urine output is essential before administering IV potassium to ensure the kidneys are functioning properly and can handle the increased potassium load, preventing hyperkalemia.
B. Ensure potassium infusion is prepared with 5% dextrose solution. While IV potassium can be mixed with normal saline or dextrose solutions, the specific diluent will depend on the clinical scenario. This isn't necessarily a standard requirement, so it may not be appropriate for all situations.
C. Educate the client regarding high-potassium foods. Education on high-potassium foods helps the client maintain potassium levels after treatment, reducing the need for future supplementation.
D. Repeat blood serum potassium levels. Rechecking potassium levels ensures the patient reaches a safe and therapeutic range and helps monitor for signs of overcorrection or continued hypokalemia.
E. Cardiac monitoring during infusion. Cardiac monitoring is critical, as hypokalemia and potassium replacement can affect heart rhythm and lead to arrhythmias.